BIOLOGY STUDY GUIDE

WHY? (NOTES)

1. Evolution provides a scientific explanation for the following components of the Cell Theory: a. Both diversity and unity (common features) of cells b. Unity, but not diversity c. Diversity, but not unity d. Neither diversity nor unity 2. Which a. b. c. d. e. of the following structure-function pairs is MISMATCHED? Nucleolus; ribosome production Lysosome; intracellular digestion Ribosome; protein synthesis Golgi complex; secretion of cell products Microtubules; muscle contractions

3. Three students independently measured the same cells and reported their results in the table below. Which, if any, of their measurements agree? Student 1 2 3 a. b. c. d. e. Average diameter of 20 cells 1 X 10-3 nm 10 m 1 X 10-2 mm 1 and 2 2 and 3 1 and 3 1, 2, and 3 Actually, all of their measurements are different

4. Which of the students in Question 3 used metric units that are most conventional for expressing the diameter of a cell? a. Student 1 b. Student 2 c. Student 3 d. Students 1 and 2 e. Actually, none of the students used conventional units 5. You are examining a photograph that presents a 2D image of the inside of a cell. Using the scale bar you determine that the two structures you are interested in are 2 nm apart. This photograph is a(n): a. Light micrograph (LM) b. Scanning electron micrograph c. Transmission electron micrograph (TEM) d. SEM or TEM e. LM, SEM, or TEM

6. Where a. b. c. d. e.

in the cell would you expect to find ribosomes? In the rough ER lumen Free in the cytosol In a mitochondrion or chloroplast A and B B and C

7. ___________ are the organelles most responsible for accomplishing apoptosis. a. Golgi complexes and smooth ER b. Lysosomes and mitochondria c. Rough and smooth ER d. Plant vacuoles and smooth ER e. All of the above are equally responsible 8. Viruses a. b. c. d. e. are Typically smaller than the smallest bacteria Viewable by light microscopy Similar in size to a mitochondrion or chloroplast Not even resolvable by electron microscopy None of the above

9. Of the following, which is NOT considered part of the endomembrane system? a. Golgi complex b. Chloroplast c. Vesicle d. Plasma membrane e. Nuclear envelope 10. The surface-to-volume ratio of a cell can be made more favorable by a. Increasing both the volume and surface area b. Decreasing both the volume and surface area c. Increasing its volume, or decreasing its surface area d. Decreasing its volume, or increasing its surface area e. None of the above, all cells have equally favorable surfacevolume ratios. 11. Prokaryotic cells a. Have existed for most of Earths history b. Lack plasma membranes c. Evolved from eukaryotic cells d. Lack ribosomes e. All of the above are true 12. Stains are useful in microscopy because they improve a. Resolution b. Magnification c. Contrast d. Resolution and contrast e. Magnification and resolution

13. In the cell fractionation technique, the organelles that are most dense are found a. In the pellet b. In the supernatant c. Forming a distinct band in the supernatant d. Equally distributed throughout the centrifuge tube e. Floating at the very top of the supernatant 14. Microtubules and microfilaments a. Have the same diameter b. Are composed of polysaccharide subunits c. Can rapidly change in length by the addition or removal of subunits d. More than one of the above e. None of the above 15. Short, numerous 9+2 structures are a. Flagella b. Microfilaments c. Kinesin d. Centrioles and basal bodies e. Cilia 16. Nucleosomes are made up of a. DNA (only) b. RNA and phospholipids c. RNA and histones d. DNA and histones e. Protein and carbohydrate 17. The term S phase refers to a. DNA synthesis during interphase b. Synthesis of histones during prophase c. Duplication of centrioles during interphase d. Fusion of gametes in sexual reproduction e. Protein synthesis in G1 and G2 18. In a cell at _______, each chromosome consists of a pair of attached sister chromatids. a. Prophase or telophase b. G1 or G2 c. Anaphase or telophase d. G2 or prophase e. Telophase or G1 19. The life a. b. c. d. e. cycle of a sexually reproducing eukaryote includes Mitosis Meiosis Fusion of gametes A and B (only) A, B, and C

20. A particular plant species has a diploid chromosome number of 50. A haploid cell of that species at mitotic metaphase contains a total of ___ chromosomes and ___ chromatids. a. 50, 50 b. 25, 25 c. 50, 100 d. 25, 50 e. 50, 25 21. The high heat of vaporization of water accounts for a. Evaporative cooling b. The fact that ice floats c. The fact that heat is required to melt ice d. The cohesive properties of water e. Capillary action 22. A diploid nucleus at very early mitotic prophase has ___ set(s) of chromosomes; a diploid nucleus at mitotic telophase has ____ set(s) of chromosomes a. 1, 1 b. 1, 2 c. 2, 1 d. 2, 2 e. Not enough information has been given. 23. According to currently available research results, the movement of the chromosomes to the poles at anaphase is mainly due to a. Shortening of kinetochore microtubules due to the removal of subunits b. Contraction of the polar microtubules c. The fact that the chromosomes use kinesin motors to move along the microtubules d. Pushing by the cell plate e. Pulling by the astral microtubules 24. A solution that has 6.02 X 1023 hydrogen ions per L is a ____ molar solution a. 23 b. 6.02 c. 1 d. 10 e. None of the above 25. In an animal cell at mitotic metaphase, you would expect to find a. Two pairs of centrioles located on the metaphase plate b. One pair of centrioles inside the nucleus c. A pair of centrioles within each microtubules organizing center d. A centriole within each centromere e. No centrioles

26. Which a. b. c. d. e.

of the following are generally hydrophobic Polar molecules and hydrocarbons Ions and hydrocarbons Non-polar molecules and ions Polar molecules and ions None of the above

27. Which of the following organelles must duplicate their own DNA during the cell cycle? a. Ribosomes and Golgi complexes b. Smooth and rough ER c. Vesicles and vacuoles d. Mitochondria and chloroplast e. Lysosomes and ribosomes 28. Which of the following have the same number of chromosomes? a. Two daughter cells resulting from a mitotic division b. A parent cell that undergoes meiosis and the daughter cells it gives rise to c. A parent haploid cell and the two daughter cells it produces by mitosis d. A and B e. A and C 29. Which a. b. c. d. e. 30. of the following is MISMATCHED with its properties or function? Carbon: can form both polar and non-polar covalent bonds Nitrogen: low electronegativity Hydrogen: can form both polar and non-polar covalent bonds Oxygen: can participate in hydrogen bonding All of the above are correctly matched

, a radioactive form of carbon, has a. b. c. d. e. An atomic number of 14 An atomic mass of 6 An atomic mass of 20 6 electrons 14 neutrons

31. Which of the following facts would allow you to state with certainty that atom A and atom B are the same element? (not ions) a. They each have a total of 6 electrons b. They each have 4 neutrons c. In each, the sum of their electrons and neutrons is 10 d. They each have 4 electrons available to be shared in covalent bonds e. Actually, any one of the facts above would be sufficient

32. Which of the following bonds are CORRECTLY matched with their properties? a. Ionic bonds: strong only if the participating ions are dissolved in water b. Hydrogen bonds: responsible for bonding oxygen and hydrogen to form a single water molecule c. Polar covalent bonds: can form between two atoms of the same element d. Covalent bonds: may be single, double, or triple e. Hydrogen bonds: twice as strong as covalent bonds 33. A solution with a pH of 3 has a H+ that is ____ the H+ of a solution with a pH of 6. a. b. 2X c. 1/10 d. 1/1000 e. 1000X 34. NaOH and HCl react to form Na+ and Cl- and water. Which of the following statements is true? a. Na+ and Cl- are polar b. Na+ and Cl- are both anions c. A hydrogen bond can form between Na+ and Cld. Na+ is a cation, and Cl- is an anion e. Na+ is an acid, and Cl- is a base 35. Carbonic acid (H2CO3) is part of an effective buffering system because a. It is not acidic or basic b. It can be either acidic or basic c. It is weakly basic d. It resists changes to the pH of a solution when acids or bases are added e. It is strongly acidic 36. Carbon is particularly well-suited to be the backbone of organic molecules because a. It can form both covalent bonds and ionic bonds b. It is very electronegative c. Its covalent bonds are the strongest chemical bonds known d. It can bond with a large number or other atoms e. All of the bonds it forms are polar 37. Which a. b. c. d. e. of the following functional groups normally act as an acid? Phosphate Amino Carbonyl Hydroxyl Sulfhydryl

38. The following structure has no H atoms. How many should be added to represent the non-ionized molecule? O ll CC=C-O l N a. b. c. d. e. 3 4 5 6 7

39. A monosaccharide designed as an aldehyde sugar contains a. A terminal carboxyl group b. An internal carboxyl group c. A terminal carbonyl group d. An internal carbonyl group e. A terminal carboxyl group and an internal carbonyl group 40. Fatty acids are components of a. Phospholipids and steroids b. Steroids and triacylglycerols c. Phospholipids and triacylglycerols d. Glycerol and steroids e. All lipids 41. Structural polysaccharides typically a. Have extensive H bonding between adjacent molecules b. Are much more hydrophilic than storage polysaccharides c. Have much stronger covalent bonds than do storage polysaccharides d. Consists of alternating alpha-glucose and beta-glucose subunits e. Form helical structures in the cell 42. Which of the following levels of protein structure can be affected by some type of covalent bonding? a. Primary b. Secondary c. Tertiary d. A, B, and C e. Primary, tertiary, and quaternary 43. Helical a. b. c. d. e. secondary structure in starch is stabilized by Van der Waals interactions Ionic bonds Covalent bonds Hydrogen bonds Sulfhydryl bonds

44. According to the currently accepted fluid-mosaic model, a cell membrane a. A phospholipid bilayer, with proteins on the outside b. A phospholipid bilayer in which proteins are embedded c. A phospholipid bilayer, in which carbohydrates are loosely attached on the cytosolic side d. A cholesterol bilayer, in which triacylglycerols are embedded e. A triacylglycerol bilayer, with the glycerols on the outside and the fatty acid chains in the interior 45. Which of the following processes require the cell to expend metabolic energy directly (eg. From ATP) a. Active transport using an antiporter b. Facilitated diffusion c. Osmosis d. Simple diffusion e. All of the above 46. Which of the following processes require a transmembrane transport protein (carrier)? a. Facilitated diffusion b. The sodium-potassium pump c. Osmosis d. A and B e. B and C 47. In the process known as ____, molecules of a particular substance attach to specific proteins on the plasma membrane, and then become enclosed in special vesicles a. Carrier-mediated active transport b. Pinocytosis c. Receptor-mediated endocytosis d. Facilitated diffusion e. Phagocytosis 48. Which of the following would be expected to exhibit the most extensive van der Waals interactions? a. 2 saturated fatty acids b. 2 unsaturated fatty acids c. A saturated fatty acid and an unsaturated on d. 2 phospholipid head groups e. None of the above would be expected to interact in any way 49. All cells a. b. c. d. e. have modifications that allow them to control the transport of Water Oxygen Carbon dioxide Ions Hydrocarbons

50. Animal a. b. c. d. e. 51. A plant a. b. c. d. e.

cells are generally healthiest when in a(n) ____ environment Isotonic Hypertonic Hypotonic Isotonic or hypertonic Isotonic or hypotonic cell becomes turgid when placed in a(n) ______ environment Isotonic Hypertonic Hypotonic Isotonic or hypertonic Isotonic or hypotonic

52. An amphipatic molecule a. Is uncharged b. Has a hydrophobic end and hydrophilic end c. Has one end with a full unit of positive charge and one end with a full unit of negative charge d. Has one end that is charged and one end that is uncharged e. Is unaffected by van der Waals interactions 53. Which of the following is/are most important for cell recognition by animal cells? a. Phospholipids b. Cholesterol c. Cytoskeletal elements d. Glycoproteins and glycolipids e. Glucose 54. A cell a. b. c. d. e.

Can exchange energy with its surrounding, but not matter Can exchange matter with its surrounding, but not energy Cannot exchange matter or energy with its surroundings Can exchange both matter and energy with its surroundings Can create energy, but not matter

55. In a closed system, over time: a. Both free energy and entropy increase b. Both free energy and entropy decrease c. Free energy increases but entropy decreases d. Free energy decreases but entropy increases e. Free energy and entropy become equal 56. Which of the following accurately represents the relationship among the terms anabolism, catabolism, and metabolism? a. Anabolism = catabolism b. Metabolism = catabolism c. Catabolism = anabolism + metabolism d. Anabolism = catabolism + metabolism e. Metabolism = catabolism + anabolism

57. NADH and FADH2 are the products of a. Decarboxylation reactions b. Reduction reactions c. Glycolysis d. Formation of acetyl coenzyme A e. Chemiosmosis 58. An endergonic reaction can proceed only if it absorbs a. More free energy than is released by a coupled exergonic reaction b. Less free energy than is released by a coupled endergonic reaction c. Less free energy than is released by a coupled exergonic reaction d. The same amount of energy that is absorbed by the enzymatic breakdown of proteins e. Energy from ADP, forming ATP 59. When an enzyme-substrate complex forms, the substrate a. Fits perfectly in the active site b. Alters the conformation of the active site c. Binds reversibly to a site other than the active site d. Binds irreversibly to the active site e. Irreversibly alters the conformation of the enzyme molecule, but leaves the active site intact 60. An enzyme increases the rate of a chemical reaction by a. Increasing the free energy of the reactants b. Decreasing the free energy of the reactants c. Increasing the free energy of both the reactants and products d. Enabling reactants with less free energy to react e. A and B 61. Consider the following reaction, which can be catalyzed by a specific enzyme: A <-> B. If we carry out this reaction in a test tube in the lab a. All of A will be converted to B b. Equilibrium will never be attained c. Equilibrium will be attained only if the reaction is catalyzed d. Equilibrium will be attained when the concentrations of A = B e. Equilibrium will be attained when the concentrations of A and B are no longer changing 62. Which a. b. c. d. e. of the following would be an example of a coenzyme? A metal ion An enzyme that helps another enzyme function properly An organic molecule that transfers electrons A protein that stabilizes the conformation of an enzyme Any of the above could be a coenzyme

Choose the best answer. May be used more than once or not at all. a. b. c. d. e. 63. 64. 65. 66. Oxidative phosphorylation Glycolysis Conservation of pyruvate to acetyl coenzyme A Citric acid cycle More than one of the above

_____ Energy is captured as ATP and NADH but no CO2 is formed _____ CO2 and NADH are formed, but no ATP _____ ATP is formed as H+ diffuses through ATP synthase complexes _____ 2 carbons supplied by acetyl coenzyme A react with four carbons from oxaloacetate 67. _____ FAD --> FADH2 68. _____ NAD+ --> NADH

69. Which of the following metabolic processes yields the greatest amount of useable energy? a. Glucose+ oxygen carbon dioxide and water b. 2 glyceraldehyde phosphates (G3P) + oxygen CO2 and water c. NADH NAD+ d. FADH2 FAD e. ATP ADP + Pi 70. Which of the following metabolic processes require(s) the cell to invest energy? a. Glucose fructose 1,6 bisphosphate b. Glyceraldehyde phosphate (G3P) pyruvate c. Pyruvate acetyl coenzyme A d. All of the above e. None of the above 71. The most acidic part of an actively respiring mitochondrion is the a. Matrix b. Inner membrane c. Outer membrane d. Intermembrane space e. None of the above, there are no pH differences in a mitochondrion 72. _______ is a process in which energy (as electrons) is released, whereas _______ is a process in which energy (as electrons) is accepted a. Reduction, oxidation b. Enthalpy, entropy c. Entropy, enthalpy d. Oxidation, reduction e. Anabolism, catabolism