LSPHYS 401 PHYSIOLOGY LECTURE 2007 EXAM I

Name (PRINT CLEARLY)_______________________________________

Notes on the test: You will need to use the scantron sheets for all questions; please fill in the bubbles completely and write your name on the sheet!!

All questions are worth 2 points each. There are 50 questions (a total of 100 points). For each question, choose the BEST answer for some questions multiple answers may contain true statements but one answer will be clearly better than the others. Please turn in both your copy of the exam and the scantron sheet. Scores will be posted on Blackboard.

1. Which of the following is a primary tissue type? A. Lung B. Kidney C. Muscle D. Gut E. Kleenex 2. The tight junctions between cells in an epithelial membrane layer: A. Allow the passage of small water soluble ions and molecules between the cytoplasm of adjacent cells B. Prevent uncontrolled paracellular leakage of molecules across the membrane layer C. Allow contraction of the membrane layer D. Allow elastic stretching of the membrane layer 3. Homeostasis is possible because: A. Very small amounts of fluid diffuse across capillary walls. B. Diffusion of almost any substance from capillary to cell takes many minutes. C. Large amounts of fluid rapidly diffuses back and forth across capillary walls, constantly maintaining homogeneity of extracellular fluid. D. The energy for fluid diffusion is generated by ATP. 4. _________ feedback often leads to ________ instability and sometimes death. A. Positive, progressive B. Positive, diminished C. Negative, progressive D. Negative, diminished E. Feedforward, diminished 5. Which of the following processes would demonstrate a maximum rate of diffusion (Vmax)

at high physiological substrate concentrations? A. Simple diffusion B. Ion channel diffusion C. Carrier-mediated diffusion D. None of the above
6. Two compartments (X and Y) are separated by a typical biological membrane (i.e., lipid bilayer). The concentrations of a permeant solute (i.e., urea) at time zero are shown in the drawing to the right. Which of the drawings below represents the volumes of X and Y when the system reaches equilibrium (E)? X Y X Y X Y X Y X Y X Y 0
E E E E E

A.

B.

C. ....

D.

E.

7. The diagram illustrates possible changes in red blood cell volume resulting from a change in Initial extracellular fluid Volume composition for a cell equilibrated in150 mmol/L NaCl at time 0. Which curve best illustrates the 0 Time (seconds) volume caused by immersion of the cell in an aqueous solution of 150 mmol/L CaCl2?

A B C D E

8. For each complete cycle of activity, the membrane sodium-potassium ATPase pump moves ____ sodium ions out of the cell and ____ potassium ions into the cell. A. B. C. D. Two ; two Two ; three Three ; three Three ; two

9. The resting membrane potential of a typical central nervous system neuron is close to the Nernst potential for potassium primarily because of which one of the following? A. The action of the sodium-potassium ATPase B. Relatively high resting membrane potassium permeability C. A membrane concentration gradient that favors potassium entry into the cell

D. Unrestricted diffusion of chloride ions

10. Laboratory results indicate that a mans serum potassium level has decreased to a value of 2.5 mEq/L (normal: 3.5 to 5.0 mEq/L). This decrease in serum potassium causes which of the following? A. A decreased net driving force for potassium to leave cells B. Increased intracellular potassium concentration C. Hyperpolarization of the resting membrane potential D. More positive Nernst equilibrium potential for potassium E. More negative Nernst equilibrium potential for sodium

11. In the following graph, Em represents the measured initial membrane potential for a hypothetical cell in vivo. In relation to this membrane potential, the equilibrium potentials of three ions (Q, R, S) are represented. During resting conditions, the permeability for Q and S ions is the same, which is 1000 times greater than that of ion R. Pick the path most likely taken by the membrane potential when membrane permeability to ion S is decreased to 0. A E
Q

B C D

R=

Em E

E Time

12. Myelination of a nerve fiber has which of the following effects? A. Decreased conduction velocity of action potential or no action potential B. Decreased velocity of salutatory conduction

C. Increased conduction velocity of action potential D. Increased energy requirement for successful action potentials 13. The diagram shows an action potential for a nerve fiber. Use the diagram to answer the question. Where on the curve does potassium membrane permeability exceed sodium permeability? A. W and Z X B. V, W, X, and Y +20 C. W and X D. V, Y and Z E. X, Y, and Z Membrane 0 Potential W (mV) -20 Y -40 -60 -80 V Z Time (msec)

14. The relative refractory period in a nerve cell action potential is primarily caused by which one of the following? A. Hyperpolarization of the cell membrane B. Closure of voltage-gated potassium channels C. Inactivation of the voltage-gated sodium channels D. Inhibition of the sodium-potassium ATPase 15. Temporal summation for an individual postsynaptic neuron A. Occurs when a single presynaptic neuron releases neurotransmitter with high frequency. B. Occurs because of the convergence of many neurons on a single postsynaptic cell. C. Only involves excitatory postsynaptic potentials. D. Only involves inhibitory postsynaptic potentials. 16. Which of the following is NOT a property of chemical synapses? A. Delayed impulse transmission.

B. Always transmit signals in both directions across the synaptic cleft. C. Require specific receptor proteins D. Require the release of neurotransmitters. 17. In the autonomic nervous system, postganglionic neurons contain A. -adrenergic receptors. B. adrenergic receptors. C. muscarinic receptors. D. nicotinic receptors 18. Clearance of neurotransmitter from the synaptic cleft is necessary for A. Transmission of discrete impulses from the presynaptic neuron to the postsynaptic neuron B. Replenishing stores of neurotransmitter in the presynaptic cell C. Enhancing the ligand binding of the postsynaptic receptors D. Further release of neurotransmitter in response to another action potential 19. Parasympathetic preganglionic nerves A. Display a great deal of divergence. B. Can not be activated all together C. Release norepinephrine. D. Directly innervate the target organs. *20. In which organ systems do sympathetic and parasympathetic stimulation have opposite effects? Unclear-I accepted all answers. If you thought antagonistic than A would be most correct, but you could make a good argument for B or C, and therefore D. A. Heart B. Gastrointestinal tract C. Urogenital Systems D. All of the above

21. Which of the following receptor types mediates an increase in bronchial dilation? A. Alpha1 receptors B. Alpha2 receptors C. Beta1 receptors D. Beta2 receptors 22. Inhibition of sympathetic neuronal tone would have which of the following effects on cutaneous blood vessels?

A. B. C. D.

Vasoconstriction Vasodilation Vasoconstriction follow by vasodilation No effect

23. Lateral inhibition is a mechanism to A. Increase the size of the stimulatory field B. Decrease the peripheral activation of sensory receptors C. Sharpen perception of a sensation D. Enhance facilitation 24. The incremental increase in the amplitude of the sensory receptor potential in response to increasing stimulus strength A. Increases linearly throughout the range of response B. Does not determine the frequency of action potentials C. Determines which modality the receptor responds to D. Determines the receptors range of response to stimuli 25. Which of the following types of neuronal circuits is self-stimulating once activated? A. Converging B. Reverberating C. Diverging D. One that incorporates lateral inhibition 26. How do nerve fibers transmit different modalities of sensation? A. The type of sensation felt is determined by the point in the nervous system to which the fiber leads. B. The type of sensation felt is coded for by action potential amplitudes C. The type of sensation felt is coded for by the receptor membrane depolarization properties D. The type of sensation felt is coded for by the location of the receptors in the body

27. Sensory neurons show rapid adaptation to continuous input A. By firing in a tonic way B. Only for temperature C. Only for irrelevant information D. By phasic firing activity

28. The dorsal column-medial lemniscal system transmits A. Sensory information with a high fidelity of localization B. Sensory information with a low fidelity of localization

C. Motor information D. Mixed motor and sensory information 29. The topographical somatosensory cortex representation of the body represents A. The body's surface true to scale B. The receptor density on the skin surface C. A mirror image of the motor cortex D. Intensity of sensory stimulation input 30. Corticofugal projections from the somatosensory cortex back to sensory receptors are important for A. Activation of additional sensory receptors B. Storing information in reverberatory circuits C. Sharpening the degree of contrast and adjusting the sensitivity of the system D. Adjusting muscle strength in fast movements 31. Temperature reception is achieved by A. Two types of sensory receptors, hot and cold B. Four types of receptors, of which the very hot or very cold receptors also transmit pain C. Numerous receptors with different optimum stimulation temperatures D. Several types of receptors that also convey pain and pressure signals 32. Which of the following is the most probable explanation for cold hyperalgesia from the oral region? A. Increased inhibition of cold thermal nociceptors within the CNS B. Injury to the trigeminal nerve C. Decreased acuity of CMR1 receptors D. Increased sensitivity to cold elsewhere in the body that is referred to the oral region 33. Referred pain is produced mainly by A. Sensory hallucination B. Lateral inhibition of WDR neurons by visceral afferents C. Visceral afferent activation of WDR neurons that receive both visceral and cutaneous sensory nerve inputs D. Cutaneous afferent activation of WDR neurons that receive both visceral and cutaneous sensory nerve inputs 34. In the gate control theory A. Release of Substance P causes peripheral sensitization of nocicpetors B. The analgesia system of the brain and spinal cord releases inhibitory neuropeptides

C Increased activation of peripheral mechanosensory (A) neurons causes inhibition of pain signal transmission up the spinal cord D. Referred pain occurs by the synapsing of nociceptive afferents onto mechanosensory neurons

35. Perception of pain quality (i.e. sharp, sting, stab, etc.) and high fidelity localization of pain is mediated by A. Transmission of nociception by A fibers in the paleospinothalamic tract B. Transmission of nociception by C fibers in the neospinothalamic tract C. Concurrent stimulation of cutaneous A mechanosensory fibers D. Peripheral sensitization of nociceptive afferents E. Central sensitization of nociceptive afferents 36. Which of the following is a cause of an intracranial headache? A. Inflammation of the sinus tissue B. Hangover C. Muscle tension D. Eye strain 37. The new wonder drug Doesntexist reduces centrally mediated hyperalgesia. Which one of the following is the most likely mechanism of this drug? A. Prevents release of Substance P from nociceptive dendritic endings B. Prevents release of bradykinin from nociceptive axons in the dorsal horn gray matter C. Inhibits stimulation of large type A sensory fibers from peripheral tactile receptors D. Activates stimulation of the centrally mediated analgesic pathway 38. An sudden decrease in the proton (H+) buffering capacity of whole saliva during chewing would most likely cause A. Increased stimulation of sour receptors B. Decreased stimulation of sour receptors C. Increased stimulation of bitter receptors D. Decreased stimulation of bitter receptors 39. Administration of serotonin reuptake inhibitors resulted in increased taste perception in elderly people experiencing idiopathic hypogeusia. This experiment indicates that their hypogeusia may be A. Due to a decline in the number of taste buds B. Strictly a result of decline in receptor acuity C. At least partially mediated by the central nervous system

D. Due to a lack of adequate salivation E. Lack of sufficient chocolate in the diet 40. The perception of a particular taste is effected by A. The individual receptors that respond to different modalities B. The concentration of the substance tasted C. The contribution of olfactory stimulation D. All of the above

41. Olfactory cells can detect very small amounts of chemicals because A. There are three different neuronal pathways in the brain for processing odors B. The cAMP 2nd messenger system allows great amplification of receptor signal C. There are over 1000 different receptors for different odor molecules D. The receptor proteins are specific for individual chemicals 42. The primary physiological basis for the length-tension relationship curve of skeletal

muscle is which one of the following? A. Number of motor units activated B. Cross-sectional area of the muscle fibers C. Degree of overlap of actin and myosin filaments D. Frequency of motor unit stimulation
43. Which one of the following best describes a motor unit? A. A single muscle fiber and all the motor neurons innervating it B. A single motor neuron and all the muscle fibers it innervates C. All of the myofibrils in a muscle fiber D. The extrafusal and intrafusal muscle fibers 44. When the center of the muscle spindle is stretched slowly, the primary and secondary sensory neurons in the muscle spindle A. Decrease rate of firing because the nuclear chain fibers are relaxed B. Decrease rate of firing because the nuclear bag fibers are relaxed C. Increase rate of firing in proportion to the degree of stretch D. Generate a tremendous number of impulses that is proportional to the rate of length change 45. During a physical exam, an increased response from a reflex reaction can be an indication

of A. Reduced activity in the higher brain areas that synapse with the reflex circuits in the spinal cord B. Inhibition of signal conduction in the gamma motor efferents of the spinal cord reflex circuits C. A lack of exercise D. A good state of health 46. A muscle contraction against a resistance that is less than the opposing force and causes muscle shortening is a(n) A. Concentric contraction. B. Isometric contraction. C. Eccentric contraction. D. Isotonic contraction. 47. Fast twitch skeletal muscle fibers A) contract slowly. B) have a small diameter. C) have a high myoglobin concentration. D) use a glycolytic metabolism 48. Experimentation with animals has shown that the basic chewing cycle A. Requires sensory feedback from orofacial mechanorecptors B. Is driven by a central pattern generator hardwired in the brain C. Requires input from the primary motor cortex D. Requires proprioceptive feedback from muscle spindles in the jaw opening muscles 49. Bite force is modulated A. By the jaw-jerk reflex B. By the central pattern generator C. By the stretch reflex pathway both when load increases and when it decreases D. By the stretch reflex pathway when load increases and by periodontal reflexes when load decreases 50. The swallowing reflex A. Does not affect respiration B. Can be voluntarily interrupted at any stage C. Is a complicated interaction between brainstem nuclei to control the ~ 25 pairs of muscles involved D. Is only triggered by placement of food in the mouth