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1. The distinction between the branch parazoa and eumetazoa is based mainly on the absence versus the presence of a. body cavities b. true tissues c. mesoderm d. blood vascular system. 2. The branches radiate and Bilateral of the eumetazoa both exhibit a. Dominance of diploid stage in life cycle b. Three germ layers in embryonic development d. Bilateral symmetry of larval forms
c. A complete digestive tract with separate mouth and anus 3. Which of the following is the characteristic of porifera? a. Pores 4. True animals are b. Canal system a. Non- cellular
5. Which one of the following coelenterates does not have any zooids? a. Hydra and obelia b. Jelly fish and physalia c. Hydra and Jelly fish d. Physalia and cells
6. The name Animalia which means breath or soul is derived from a. Greek word b. Latin word c. Italian word d. English word
7. All diploblastic animals have a. Bilateral symmetry b. No symmetry c. Radial symmetry d. Diagonal symmetry
10. In sponges food is ingested by which type of cells a. pinacocytes b. Choanocytes c. Amoebocytes d. phagocytes
11. Which of the following is called Venus flower basket? a. sycon b. Leucosolenia c. Euplectella d. Spoon bill
12. In cnidarians polyp animals helps to feed so are called a. Gonozoids b. Gastrozoids c. Holozoids d. Reprozoids
13. Cnidarians are characterized by the presence of cnidocytes which gives rise to a.Heterocysts b. Nematocysts c. thermocysts d. Endocysts
14. Which of the following cnidarians produce exoskeleton of Ca CO3. a. Hydra b. Jelly fish c. Corals d. Obelia
15. It exist only in polyp form, therefore alternation of generation is absent in a. Jelly fish b. Physalia c. Hydra d. Obelia
16. With few exceptions, the Platyhelminthes are a. symbionts b. Autotrophic c. Endoparasites d. Predators
17. The excretory system of Platyhelminthes consists of branching tubes ending in the bulb like cells called. a. Fire cells b. blaze cells c. flame cells d. Bowmans cells 18. Which one of the following are free living flat worm? a. Tape worm b. Planarian c. Liver fluke d. Blood fluke
19. Which one of the following is an endoparasite of man, cattle and pig? a. Liver fluke b. Planarian c. tapeworm a. Calcium carbonate b. silica d. Earthworm c. chitin d. lignin {10x1=10}
Q.2: Answers briefly any 10 short questions in all. All questions carry equal marks.
1. Differentiate Parazoa and eumetazoa 2. Three differences between radiate and bilateria 3. Three difference between acoelomates and coelomate 4. Define protandrous and gemmule 5. Three difference between proterostome and Deuterostomes 6. Three importances of sponges 7. Differentiate between spiral and determinate cleavage and radial and indeterminate cleavage 8. Three main differences between diploblastic and triploblastic animal 9. Differentiate between an-amniotes and amniotes 10. Differentiate between pinacoderm and choanoderm 11. Define alternation of generation and polymorphism 12. Why pseudocoelom is not homologous to true coelom? Q.3: Discuss in detail i. Phylum Porifera ii. Phylum Platyhelminthes iii. Infestation and disinfestations
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1. As a group acoelomates are characterized by. a. gastro vascular cavities mesoderm b. a colon that is not completely lined with d. Deuterostomes
c. a solid body without a cavity surrounding internal development 2. Which of the following causes sleeping sickness? a.Trypanosoma Plasmodium 3. Platyhelminthes are Asymmetrical d. All b. Amoeba a. bilaterally symmetrical c. Euglena
d. c.
b. radially symmetrical
5. The multicellular animals evolved from a. Sporozoa d. Parazoa b. unicellular ciliates c. Unicellular flagellates
6. Virtually all biologists agree that animals evolved from a. Prokaryotes d. fungi b. amoeboid eukaryotes c. Protoctista
7. Beside ectoderm and endoderm, a third non cellular layer present in diploblastic animals is a. Parenchyma Hypodermis b. Mesenchyma c. Epidermis d.
c. It has no relation with the reproduction and excretory organs 9. Pores on the body of sponges are called Mouth 10. The bath sponge has skeleton made up of a. spicules d. calcareous cells b. connective tissue a. Sycon b. Leucoslenia a. Asculum
12. Which of the following animals in cnidarians have gonads? a. Gastrozoids d. gonozoids b. Medusae a. Polyps c. Polyps b. Medusae c.
13. Blastostyle in obelia colony gives rise to Gonozoids d. all 14. They are commonly called corals a. Aurelia b. Actinia
c. Madrepora
d. Physalia
15. The name Platyhelminthes means a. Hook worm Flat worm b. Blood worm c. Round worm d.
16. The body of tape worm is divided into segments called. a. Mesenteries d. Septa 17. The host of liver fluke may be d. all b. Glottides a. Sheep b. man c. Proglottids c. snail
18. Tape worm is transmitted to the body of man by a. drinking foul water c. eating improperly cooked beef 19. About 20 % of food of sponges is d. small fish b. eating, green vegetables d. eating, rotten fruits a. zooplankton b. phytoplankton c. detritus
a. round worm
b. pointed worm
c. flate worm
Q.2: Answers briefly any 10 short questions in all. All questions carry equal marks.
{10x1=10}
1. Differentiate Parazoa and eumetazoa 2. Three differences between radiate and bilateria 3. Three difference between acoelomates and coelomate 4. Define protandrous and gemmule 5. Three difference between proterostome and Deuterostomes 6. Three importances of sponges 7. Differentiate between spiral and determinate cleavage and radial and indeterminate cleavage 8. Three main differences between diploblastic and triploblastic animal 9. Differentiate between an-amniotes and amniotes 10. Differentiate between pinacoderm and choanoderm 11. Define alternation of generation and polymorphism 12. Why pseudocoelom is not homologous to true coelom? Q.3: Discuss in detail i. Phylum Porifera ii. Phylum Platyhelminthes iii. Infestation and disinfestations
2. Number of restriction enzymes discovered so far is 3. The commonly used restriction enzyme is a. E. Coli b. ECo RI c. PCR d. phage
b. 300
a. probes
b. RELP c. PCR
d. Gel
5. Plasmids having desired gene/DNA are known as a. rDNA 6. Thermos aquatics is a. an enzyme
7. Which of the followings is irrelevant for PCR? a. Primer RNA b. Recombinant DNA a. Agro c. DMA polymerase b. Agarose Gel c. Agar d. thermo cycler d. RFLP
9. Analysis of the entire genome DNA is done by a. PCR b. DNA polymerase c. gel. Electrophoresis d. DNA finger printing
a. 2
b. 3
c.4
d. 6
11. The single stranded nucleotide sequence that hybridize into certain piece is a. Clone 12. Probe is a b. probe a. Part of DNA pieces c. RELPs d. Endonuclease
b. Cline of bacteria with pieces of DNA d. Single standard DNA pieces a. EcoR1 b. EcoR2 c. EcoR3 d. EcoR4
14. In 1970, Hamilton D. Smith at Johns Hopkins University, isolated the first a. DNA polymerase b. DNA ligase c. Restriction enzyme d.plasmid c. pig genome d. monkey genome
15. There are three billion base pairs in the a. human genome b. horse genome
Q.1: Answers briefly any 10 short questions in all. All questions carry equal marks.
{10x1=10}
1. Define biotechnology. Name any three biotechnology products2. Define genetic engineering. Name the possible ways to get the gene of interest 3. What are palindromic sequences? 4. What are restriction enzymes? 5. What are plasmids? Give their importance 6. Define genome and genomic library. 12. What is DNA finger printing? 7. What is a probe? What is its use? 8. Define PCR. What is the use of PCR amplification and DNA analysis? 9. What is RFLP? What is the role of DNA polymerase/Taq polymerase in PCR? 10. Write down the main principle of gene sequences. 11. What is human genome project? Give two primary goals of human genome project? 12. What is tissue culture and hygerdization 13. Uses of PCR
2. The technique used to produce copies of gene in laboratory is a. PCR b. recombinant DNA technology c. RFLP d. Genomic library
4. .is the production of many identical copies of a gene a. clone b. transgenic c. RFLP d. cloning 5. Palindromic sequence is present in 6. Kary B. Mullis developed the PCR in a. single phase b. repeated form a. 1897 b. 1923 c. reverse order c. 1973 d. 1983 d. similar order
7. The plasmids having resistant gene against tetracycline and Ampicillin are a. p SC 101 b. PBR 332 c. Eco R1 d. Phage virus
8. Match Sangers method for generation of pieces of DNA with one of the following a. Deoxyribonucleotides b. deoxyribonucleoside c. dideoxyribonucleoside d. DNA threads
a. biology
b. criminology
11. Antibody which is used for the treatment of genital herpes is obtained from?
12. Which of the following is model plant in which gene sequencing has been completed? a. Yeast b. Pea c. Arabidopsis d. Plum a. NaCI b. Ca CI2 c. Na2CO3 d. CaCO3
14. In 1970, Hamilton D. Smith at Johns Hopkins University, isolated the first a. DNA polymerase b. DNA ligase c. Restriction enzyme d. RNA polymerase
15. There are three billion base pairs in the a. human genome
Q.1: Answers briefly any 10 short questions in all. All questions carry equal marks.
1. Define biotechnology. Name any three biotechnology products 2. Define genetic engineering. Name the possible ways to get the gene of interest 3. What are palindromic sequences? 4. What are restriction enzymes? 5. What are plasmids? Give their importance 6. Define genome and genomic library. 12. What is DNA finger printing? 7. What is a probe? What is its use? 8. Define PCR. What is the use of PCR amplification and DNA analysis? 9. What is RFLP? What is the role of DNA polymerase/Taq polymerase in PCR? 10. Write down the main principle of gene sequences. 11. What is human genome project? Give two primary goals of human genome project? 12. What is tissue culture and hygerdization 13. Uses of PCR
7. Give three characteristics of class hepaticopsida (liverworts) 8. Give three characteristics of class music (mosses) 9. Give three characteristics of class anthocerotae (hornworts) Q.2 a) Define and explain alternation of generation. b) Explain evolution of leaf. c) Describe the adaptation in bryophytes to land habitat 10. Define paraphyses and protonema {5} {5} {5}
2. The leaf having single undivided vein is called a. microphyll b. megaphyll c. mesophyll d. heterophyll
5. The archegonia and sporangia form clusters and mixed with a. sterile leaf 6. Example of mosses are a. funaria b.anthoceros c. polytrichum d. marchantia b paraphysis c. protonema d. all
7. The process of evolution of leaf was very slow and gradual which completed in more than a. 1-10 M years b. 5-15 myears c. 15-29 M years d. 20-25 M years
8. The arrangement of unequal dichotomies in one plane is termed as a. overtopping b. fusion c. planation d. webbing
9. In anthoceros sporophyte at the junction of foot and spore producing region, there are a band of a. paraphysis b. meristem c. protonema d. all
10. Known species of plants are about a. 260000 b. 160000 c. 360000 d. 460000
11. The spore of a moss develops into an alga like structure, a. paraphysis b. protonema c. sterile hair d. a + c
12. The sorophyte of bryophytes is usually differentiated into foot, seta and a. leaf b. stem c. capsule d. calyptras
13. The simplest of all bryophytes are a. mosses b. hornworts c. liverworts d. whisk fern
14. Some liverworts are differentiated into a false stem, and leaves e.g a. porella b. marchantia c. anthoceros d. polytrichum
15. Heterogamy is the production of two types of a. gametes b. spores c. seed d. ovules
2. Write three main characters of sphenopsida 4. Define arthrophytes and circinate vernation 6. What are spermatophytes? 8. Write three main characters of class angiospermae 10. What is a seed? Give its importance 12. What is prothallus? {7 }
Q.2 a) Explain various steps involved in the evolution of seed habit in spermatophytes. b). Describe the life cycle of an angiospermic plant Describe {7 } the OR life cycle of a
pinus
plant.
1. There are two living genera in Psilopsida a. Psilotum & Psilophyton c. Cooksonia and Psilotum b. Psilotum & Tmesipeteris d. Cooksonia and Tmesipeteris
2. The seed of Pinus upon germination gives rise to a new .. Plant a. gametophyte d. both a & c b. sporophyte c. angiosperm
3. Male gametes produced by antheridia are called a. seed d. antherozoids b. ovules c. eggs
4. Stem of adiantum, is usually unbranched, horizontally growing and called a. rhizoid d. tuber b. rhizome c. stipe
5. Root arise from the lower side of the rhizome are called a. fibrous roots adventitious roots b. tap roots c. adventitious roots d. fibrous
6. Sori are protected by the bent margin of the leaflet, forming false a. root d. indusium b. pods c. caryopsis
7. Selaginella resembles seed producing plants because of its a. heterospory d. both a&b b. homospory c. seed
10. At its longest diameter, the size of prothallus is about a. 8 cm d. 8 A0 11. The prothallus is d. hermaphrodite b. 8 mm a. monoecious b. dioecious c. 8 m c. bisexual
12. The archegonium consists of a. venter and stalk d. ovary and neck b. ovary and style c. Venter and neck
13. First complete seed appeared about..million years ago during late Devonian times a. 360 b. 365 c. 375 d. 265
b. naked seeded
c. seedless
15. Technically a seed may be defined as a fertilized a. egg b. ovule c. oospores d. both a & b
1. There are two living genera in Psilopsida a. Psilotum & Psilophyton c. Cooksonia and Psilotum b. Psilotum & Tmesipeteris d. Cooksonia and Tmesipeteris
2. The seed of Pinus upon germination gives rise to a new .. Plant a. gametophyte d. both a & c b. sporophyte c. angiosperm
3. Male gametes produced by antheridia are called a. seed d. antherozoids b. ovules c. eggs
4. Stem of adiantum, is usually unbranched, horizontally growing and called a. rhizoid d. tuber b. rhizome c. stipe
5. Root arise from the lower side of the rhizome are called a. fibrous roots adventitious roots b. tap roots c. adventitious roots d. fibrous
6. Sori are protected by the bent margin of the leaflet, forming false a. root d. indusium b. pods c. caryopsis
7. Selaginella resembles seed producing plants because of its a. heterospory d. both a&b b. homospory c. seed
10. At its longest diameter, the size of prothallus is about a. 8 cm d. 8 A0 11. The prothallus is d. hermaphrodite b. 8 mm a. monoecious b. dioecious c. 8 m c. bisexual
12. The archegonium consists of a. venter and stalk d. ovary and neck b. ovary and style c. Venter and neck
13. First complete seed appeared about..million years ago during late Devonian times a. 360 265 b. 365 c. 375 d.
14. The term gymnospermae literally means a. enclosed seeded &b b. naked seeded c. seedless d. both a
15. Technically a seed may be defined as a fertilized a. egg both a & b b. ovule c. oospores d.
16. Solanaceae is a family of about a. 90 genera and 200 species c. 70 genera and 200 species 17. The integument s of the ovule form a. testa d. both a & b b. tegmen c. stamen b. 90 genera and 2000 species d. 80 genera and 1000 species
18. The term angiosperm literally means a. enclosed seed d. all b. naked seed c. open seed
19. the megasporophylls bearing ovules are not folded and joined at the margins to form an ovary a. filicineae gymnospermae b. dicot c. monocot d.
20. At the tips of branches in Psilopsida are produced a. archegonia zygote b. antheridia c. sporangia d.
a. pseudopodia a. 3 b. 4
b. setae c. 2
a. pseudocoelom
b. enterocoel
c. haemocoel
5. The system in which water move inside the body of an echinoderm is called a. water vascular system b. osculum c. madreporite a. blastopore d. pores
7. In cephalopoda,, the gaseous exchange takes place through 8. The most common arthropods on earth are insects.
a. haemoglobin a. crustaceans
b. arachnids c. myriapods
9. The sensory organs in arthropods are antennae and; a. simple eyes b. simple ears c compound eyes a. silica b. peptidoglycan d. nasal receptors c. chitin d.
10. The exoskeleton of arthropods is composed of cellulose 11. Aquatic arthropods respire through spiracles 12. Insects are characterized by d. 4 pairs of legs a. lungs
b. Book lungs
c. Tracheal tubes
d.
a. 3 pairs of legs
b. 2 pairs of wings
c. book lungs
13. The second largest phylum of invertebrates which includes 50,000 species is a. annelid b. echinodermata c. mollusk d. poriferans
14. The circulatory system is of open type in mollusks except for class. a. Bivalve b. gastropod c. cephalopod a. giants insects d. arachnid b. giant starfish c. giant squid
15. The largest invertebrate animals is d. giant sponge 16. The garden snail belongs to class. myriapoda 17. All the larvae of echinoderms show.
a. gastropoda
b. bivalvia
c. cephalopoda
d.
b. bilateral symmetry
c. no symmetry
d. oblique
18. Echinodermata show affinities with annelida 19. The most common arthropods on earth are insects 20. The body of annelids is segmented d. non motile
a. crustaceans b. arachnids
c. myriapods
d.
a. metamerically segmented
b. jointed legs
c. posteriorally
{10x1=10}
1. Three characters of phylum hemichordata 2. Three characters of classcephalopoda 3. Three characters of class myriapoda 4. Haemocyanin and mantle? 5. Metamorphosis? 6. Moulting and how it is beneficial for arthropods? 7. Three characters of class crustacean. 8. Arthropods as most successful group, how? 9. What are the affinities of echinodermata with Chordata? 10. Three importances of Mollusks Q.3 Characteristics of ii. Phylum Mollusca ii. Phylum Arthropoda iii. Importance of insects {5x2=10}
a. pseudopodia a. 3 b. 4
b. setae c. 2
a. pseudocoelom
b. enterocoel
c. haemocoel
5. The system in which water move inside the body of an echinoderm is called a. water vascular system b. osculum c. madreporite a. blastopore d. pores
7. In cephalopoda,, the gaseous exchange takes place through 8. The most common arthropods on earth are insects. 9. The blood is colorless in echinoderms
a. haemoglobin a. crustaceans
b. arachnids c. myriapods
a. annelids
b. arthropods
c. nematodes
d.
10. The body of arthropods is covered by water proof chitinus cuticle secreted by the. a.hpodermis b. epidermis c. dermis a. arachnidan d. endodermis b. crustacean c. insect d.
12. In crustacean on the dorsal side of the body the exoskeleton is in the form of a. carapace b. sheath c. plastron d. envelope a. insects b. crustaceans c.
13. Each segment of body bears a pair of jointed legs in arachnids d. myriapods
14. In mollusks the space between the shell and mantle cavity contains radial d. gills
a. kidneys b. lungs
c.
15. During embryological development of mollusks the larva formed a. Bipinnaria b. brachiolaria c. trochophore a. sepia d. planeload b. lolling c. limas d. torpedo
16. Which of the following is called shipworm? 17. Exclusively marine phylum is Platyhelminthes a. poriferans
b. cnidarians
c. echinodermata c.
18. The most unique characteristics of echinoderms is their a. nervous system organization b. tube like digestive system c. water vascular system d. body
19. All are echinoderms except for urchin 20. The chaetae are absent in d. molluscs
a. Jelly fish
b. Star fish
c. Brittle star
d. Cake
a. Lumbricus
b.Pheretima
c. Leech
21. Balanoglosssus and Saccoglossus are the common examples of a. hemichordate b. chordate c. protochordata d. cephalochordate
{10x1=10}
1. Three characters of phylum hemichordata 2. Three characters of classcephalopoda 3. Three characters of class myriapoda 4. Haemocyanin and mantle? 5. Metamorphosis? 6. Moulting and how it is beneficial for arthropods? 7. Three characters of class crustacean. 8. Arthropods as most successful group, how? 9. What are the affinities of echinodermata with Chordata? 10. Three importances of Mollusks Q.3 Characteristics of ii. Phylum Mollusca ii. Phylum Arthropoda iii. Importance of insects {5x2=10}
2. The total amount of energy fixed by plants is production a. primary b. gross primary c. net primary d. secondary
3. Primary succession is a
a. formation of ecosystem on land b. formation of ecosystem on bare land d. formation of ecosystem on improved soil c. secondary consumers b. grasses d. tertiary consumers c. herbs d. shrubs
b. producer
a. woody forest
6. The serial stages of the primary succession are a. lichen and algae b. mosses and fern c. grasses and shrubs c. succession d. all d. trophic levels d. quaternary d. all d. 9-11km
7. Balance of ecosystem is kept by 8. The succession occurs on bare rock is 9. Niche includes a. habitat
11. Regional ecological community of plants and animals form a. biosphere b. biome c. forest a. hydrosphere b. lithosphere d. niche c. biosphere d. all
13. Group of interbreeding organisms residing together in space and time is a. population b. individual c. species a. Charles Eton b. Josef Grinnell a. first trophic level d. genus c. Ernst Haeckel d. Sacks b. T1 c. T3 d. both a & b
Q.2: Answers briefly any 10 short questions in all. All questions carry equal marks.
{10x1=10}
1. Ecology, ecosystem 2. Biosphere, synecology, autecology 3. Climax community, habitat 4. Species, Niche 5. Population and community 6. Name biotic and abiotic components of an ecosystem 7. Hydrosere and xerosere 8. Pprimary and secondary succession 9. Define and ecosystem 10. Define food chain and food web 10. What is parasitism
and its significance?
Q.3 a) Define succession. Explain succession on land b) food chain and food web c) component of ecosystem
Q.3: Each question has four options. Encircle the correct answer. Over writing, cutting and use of ink remover bear no mark. {20x1=20}
1. Balanoglosssus and Saccoglossus are the common examples of a. hemichordate d. cephalochordate b. chordate c. protochordata
2. Phylum chordate derives its name from which one of the few characteristics? a. Dorsal hollow nerve tube Pharyngeal gill slits b. Notochord c. Nerve cord d.
3. Notochord and nerve chord extend along the entire length of the body and persist throughout life in a. molgula mytilis b. amphioxus c. balanoglossus d.
4. Which of the following group is called amniotes? a. Reptilia d. Osteichthyes b. Amphibian c. Cyclostomata
5. In which class of Pisces there are 5-7 pairs of gills? a. cyclostomata d. Platyhelminthes b. osteichthyes c. chondricthyes
6. Liver oil of which of the following is used as source of vitamin A and D? a. Whale d. shark b. electric rays c. sting rays
7. An operculum covers the gills of a. Jawless fishes lobe finned fishes b. Cartilaginous fishes c. bony fishes d.
8. Which of the following group of vertebrates showed modification of aquatic breathing system to meet the conditions of terrestrial life? a. Dipnoi d. Aves b. Amphibians c. Pisces
9. The protective embryonic membranes of vertebrates are following except for a. Amnion d. Ozone b. allantois c. Chorion
10. The earliest known bird fossil is that of a. Archaeopteryx d. Dinosaurs b. cotylosaurs c. Varanope
11. Varanope was an early reptile that was found as fossil in: a. Scotland d. Berlin b. Siberia c. texas
12. In mammals external ear or pinna is present and there is a chain of three bones in the ear called malleus, incus an: a. Tarsal d. occipital b. carpal c. stapes
13. Which of the following is not sub class of mammalian? a. metatheria d. pseudotheria b. prototheria c. eutheria
14. The vertebrates in which placenta is developed during foetal development are called. a. prototherian mammals c. ethereal mammals b. metatherian mammals d. all of given options
15. Placoid scales are present on the body of a. Chondrichthyes cephalopoda b. Osteichthyes c. Cyclostomata d.
16. The example of sub phylum urochodata is a. Molgula Varanope b. Amphioxus c. Mytilis d.
17. Protective embryonic membranes i.e. amnion, allantois and chorion are not present in a. mammals b. birds c. reptiles d. amphibians 18. Mammals became dominant in which period a. Jurassic Devonian b. Ordovician c. Cenozoic d.
b. birds a. Cotylosaur
c. reptiles
d. amphibians c. Kiwi
b. Archaeopteryx
1. Which of the following types of dermal scales are not present in bony fishes? a. Placoid scales d. Ctenoid scales b. Glanoid scales c. Cycloid scales
2. Most primitive living vertebrates which are without jaws are grouped in class: a. aves d. osteichthyes b. cyclostomata c. chondrichthyes
3. Which of the following is not a character of class cyclostomata? a. Body ell like c. ventral suctorial mouth stomach b. scales absent d. digestive system with J- shaped
4. Reptilia, amphibian and aves are grouped in super class; a. pisces d. bipoda b. tetrapoda c. cephalopoda
a. cephalochordate d. vertebrata
b. urochordata
c. hemichordate
6. Which of the following is not a sub phylum of chordate? a.Urochordata d. hemichordate b. cephalochordate c. craniata
7. Excretory system does not have a bladder in: a. Sparrow d. Man b. cat c. Deer
8. Reptiles flourished throughout a. Proterozoic era Cenozoic era b. Mesozoic era c. Paleozoic era d.
9. One of the paired fins of fish is the a. Caudal d. anal b. dorsal c. pelvic
10. In mammals the thoracic and abdominal cavities are separated by a muscular: a. partition d. diaphragm b. panel c. septum
11. Red blood cells are none nucleated in a. Amphibians d. mammals b. reptiles c. birds
12. Heart is 3 chambered with respect to atria and ventricle in a. fishes d. mammals b. Amphibians c. reptiles
23. Abdominal pouch in methatherian mammals is called a. placenta d. abdominal cavity b. marsupium c. diaphagram
14. Archaeopteryx resembles the present day birds in having similar a. Gizzard b. Skeleton c. Skull d. Tail
15. Placoid scales are present on the body of a. Chondrichthyes cephalopoda b. Osteichthyes c. Cyclostomata d.
16. The example of sub phylum urochodata is a. Molgula Varanope b. Amphioxus c. Mytilis d.
17. Protective embryonic membranes i.e. amnion, allantois and chorion are not present in a. mammals b. birds c. reptiles d. amphibians 18. Mammals became dominant in which period a. Jurassic Devonian b. Ordovician c. Cenozoic d.
19. Only left aortic arch is present in a. mammals 20. Early fossil bird is d. all b. birds a. Cotylosaur c. reptiles d. amphibians c. Kiwi
b. Archaeopteryx