BIOL

1116 FINAL EXAM PRACTICE QUESTIONS 2012

1) Which of the following do all fungi have in common? A) meiosis in basidia B) symbioses with algae C) coenocytic hyphae D) sexual life cycle E) absorption of nutrients 2) Which of the following is characteristic of fungi with hyphae? A) They are adapted for rapid directional growth to new food sources. B) They acquire their nutrients by phagocytosis. C) They reproduce asexually by a process known as budding. D) Their body plan is a unicellular sphere. E) Their cell walls consist mainly of cellulose microfibrils. 3) What do fungi and arthropods have in common? A) The protective coats of both groups are made of chitin. B) The haploid state is dominant in both groups. C) Both groups have cell walls. D) Both groups are commonly coenocytic. E) Both groups are predominantly heterotrophs that ingest their food. 4) For mycelia described as heterokaryons or as being dikaryotic, which process has already occurred, and which process has not yet occurred? A) meiosis, mitosis B) plasmogamy, genetic recombination C) karyogamy, germination D) germination, plasmogamy E) germination, mitosis 5) Members of this phylum form arbuscular mycorrhizae: A) Ascomycota B) Glomeromycota C) Chytridiomycota D) Zygomycota E) Basidiomycota

6) Which of the following is (are) unique to animals? A) cells that have mitochondria B) the structural carbohydrate, chitin C) heterotrophy D) nervous conduction and muscular movement E) both A and C 7) The number of legs an insect has, the number of vertebrae in a vertebral column, or the number of joints in a digit (such as a finger) are all strongly influenced by A) heterotic genes B) Hox genes. C) introns within genes. D) heterogeneous genes. E) haploid genomes. 8) The last common ancestor of all animals was probably a A) unicellular yeast B) unicellular chytrid C) plant D) multicellular fungus E) flagellated protist 9) What is the probable sequence in which the following clades of animals originated, from earliest to most recent? 1. tetrapods 2. vertebrates 3. deuterostomes 4. amniotes 5. bilaterians A) 5 3 2 1 4 B) 5 3 2 4 1 C) 3 5 2 1 4 D) 3 5 4 2 1 E) 5 3 4 2 1

10) Cephalization is most closely associated with which of the following? A) sedentary lifestyle B) predators, but not prey C) concentration of sensory structures at the anterior end D) a sessile existence E) a backbone 11) Which cells in a sponge are primarily responsible for trapping and removing food particles from circulating water? A) choanocytes B) pore cells (porocytes) C) mesoglea cells D) epidermal cells 12) A radially symmetrical animal that has two embryonic tissue layers probably belongs to which phylum? A) Echinodermata B) Cnidaria C) Porifera D) Platyhelminthes E) Nematoda 13) What would be the most effective method of reducing the incidence of blood flukes, Schistosoma, in a human population? A) Avoid contact with rodent droppings. B) Carefully wash all raw fruits and vegetables. C) Reduce the mosquito population. D) Reduce the freshwater snail population. E) Purify all drinking water. 14) A lophophore is used by ectoprocts and brachiopods: A) as a skeletal system B) for sensory reception C) for feeding D) at a larval stage E) for locomotion

15) A terrestrial mollusc without a shell belongs to which class? A) chitons B) cephalopods C) bivalves D) gastropods 16) Deuterostomes that have an endoskeleton are part of which phylum? A) Arthropoda B) Echinodermata C) Annelida D) Cnidaria E) Mollusca 17) While working in your garden, you discover a worm-like, segmented animal with two pairs of jointed legs per segment. The animal is probably a A) millipede B) caterpillar C) centipede D) sow bug E) polychaete worm 18) Which living chordates are postulated to be most like the earliest chordates in appearance? A) reptiles B) lancelets C) adult tunicates D) amphibians E) chondrichthyans 19) What do hagfishes and lampreys have in common with the extinct conodonts? A) their mode of feeding B) the jawless condition C) lungs D) bony vertebrae E) swim bladders

20) Arrange these taxonomic terms from most inclusive (i.e., most general) to least inclusive (i.e., most specific). 1. lobe-fins 2. amphibians 3. gnathostomes 4. osteichthyans 5. tetrapods A) 3, 4, 5, 1, 2 B) 4, 3, 1, 5, 2 C) 3, 4, 1, 5, 2 D) 4, 3, 2, 5, 1 E) 4, 2, 3, 5, 1 21) Which of the following are the only extant animals that descended directly from dinosaurs? A) mammals B) lizards C) snakes D) crocodiles E) birds For the following items, match the extant vertebrate groups with the descriptions. 22) May have lungs, or gills, and may use skin as a respiratory surface: A) chondrichthyans B) amphibians C) mammals D) birds E) nonbird reptiles 23) Which are the most abundant and diverse of the extant vertebrates? A) mammals B) nonbird reptiles C) birds D) amphibians E) ray-finned fishes

24) What is a distinctive feature of the chondrichthyans? A) lack of jaws B) unpaired fins C) an amniotic egg D) a mostly cartilaginous endoskeleton E) an acute sense of vision that includes the ability to distinguish colors 25) Arrange the following taxonomic terms from most inclusive (i.e., most general) to least inclusive (i.e., most specific): 1. hominoids 2. hominins 3. Homo 4. anthropoids 5. primates A) 5, 2, 1, 4, 3 B) 5, 1, 4, 2, 3 C) 5, 4, 1, 2, 3 D) 5, 4, 2, 1, 3 E) 5, 2, 4, 1, 3 26) In the territorial behaviour of the stickleback fish, the red belly of one male elicits attack from another male by functioning as A) a sign stimulus. B) an imprint stimulus. C) a fixed action pattern. D) a search image. E) a pheromone. 27) You turn on a light and observe cockroaches scurrying to dark hiding places. What have you observed? A) migration B) taxis C) operant conditioning D) visual communication E) learned behaviour

28) A chemical produced by an animal that serves as a communication to another animal of the same species is called A) a marker B) a transducer C) an agonistic chemical D) a pheromone E) an imprinter 29) Male blackbirds may mate with as many as 17 females on their breeding territory. This mating system is BEST described ass? A) polygamy B) polyandry C) polygyny D) monogamy E) polyamory 30) Animals that help other animals of the same species are expected to: A) have excess energy reserves B) have defective genes controlling their behaviour C) be bigger and stronger than the other animals D) be genetically related to the other animals E) be male 31) The evolution of mating systems is most likely affected by: A) population size B) care required by young C) certainty of paternity D) B and C only E) A, B, and C 32) Which of the following is true about imprinting? A) It causes behaviours that last for only a short time (the sensitive period). B) It occurs only in birds C) It happens to many adult animals, but not to their young D) It is a type of learning that does not involve innate behaviour E) It may be triggered by visual or chemical stimuli

33) Which of the following are important biotic factors that can affect the structure and organization of biological communities? A) temperature, water B) nutrient availability, soil pH C) precipitation, wind D) light intensity, seasonality E) predation, competition 34) Probably the most important factor(s) affecting the distribution of biomes is (are): A) species diversity B) climate C) proximity to large bodies of water D) wind and ocean water current patterns. E) day length and rainfall 35) Where would an ecologist find the most phytoplankton in a lake? A) photic zone B) oligotrophic zone C) benthic zone D) aphotic zone E) profundal zone 36) An ecologist recorded 12 white-tailed deer, Odocoileus virginianus, per square mile in one woodlot and 20 per square mile on another woodlot. What was the ecologist comparing? A) quadrats B) density C) carrying capacity D) range E) dispersion 37) Exponential population growth is most likely when: A) A population is close to the carrying capacity B) When there are few predators C) When the population is small compared to the carrying capacity such as in an endangered species D) When there are few parasites E) When the population is at roughly half of the carrying capacity

 38) Pacific salmon or annual plants illustrate which of the following? A) semelparous B) cohort C) dispersion D) iteroparous E) Allee effect 39) In models of sigmoidal (logistic) population growth: A) new individuals are added to the population most rapidly at the beginning of the population's growth. B) carrying capacity is never reached C) only density-independent factors affect the rate of population growth. D) population growth rate slows dramatically as N approaches K. E) only density-dependent factors affect the rate of population growth. 40) Which of the following is an incorrect statement about the regulation of populations? A) Because of the overlapping nature of population-regulating factors, it is often difficult to precisely determine their cause-and-effect relationships. B) Density-independent factors have an increasingly greater effect as a population's density increases. C) The occurrence of population cycles in some populations may be the result of crowding or lag times in the response to density-dependent factors. D) The logistic equation reflects the effect of density-dependent factors, which can ultimately stabilize populations around the carrying capacity. E) High densities in a population may cause physiological changes that inhibit reproduction. 41) Two barnacles, Balanus and Chthamalus, can both survive on the lower rocks just above the low-tide line on the Scottish coast, but only Balanus actually does so, with Chthamalus adopting a higher zone. Which of the following best accounts for this niche separation? A) predation of Chthamalus by Balanus B) mutualism C) cooperative displacement D) primary succession E) competitive exclusion

42) White-breasted nuthatches and Downy woodpeckers both eat insects that hide in the furrows of bark in hardwood trees. The Downy woodpecker searches for insects by hunting from the bottom of the tree trunk to the top, while the White-breasted nuthatch searches from the top of the trunk down. These hunting behaviours best illustrate which of the following ecological concepts? A) resource partitioning B) character displacement C) competitive exclusion D) individualistic hypothesis E) keystone species 43) In a tide pool, 15 species of invertebrates were reduced to eight after one species was removed. The species removed was likely: A) a keystone species B) a mutualistic organism C) an herbivore D) a community facilitator E) resource partitioner 44) Which of the following describes a successional event in which one organism makes the environment more suitable for another organism? A) parasitism B) mutualism C) commensalism D) facilitation E) inhibition 45) The total biomass of photosynthetic autotrophs present in an ecosystem is known as: A) net primary productivity B) secondary productivity C) standing crop D) trophic efficiency E) gross primary productivity

46) Aquatic primary productivity is most limited by which of the following? A) temperature B) predation by fishes C) light and nutrient availability D) increased pressure with depth E) disease 47) In general, the total biomass in a terrestrial ecosystem will be greatest for which trophic level? A) herbivores B) producers C) primary consumers D) secondary consumers E) tertiary consumers 48) Which of the following is the most direct threat to biodiversity? A) the depletion of the ozone layer B) increased levels of atmospheric carbon dioxide C) overexploitation of species D) zoned reserves E) habitat destruction 49) Relatively small geographic areas with high concentrations of endemic species are known as A) critical communities B) biodiversity hot spots C) bottlenecks D) endemic sinks E) endemic metapopulations 50) Introduced species can have deleterious effects on biological communities by A) displacing native species. B) preying on native species. C) competing with native species for food or light. D) competing with native species for space or breeding/nesting habitat. E) A, B, C, and D

51) Plants produce a variety of chemical defenses against herbivores that render them distasteful or toxic. Plant breeders have produced varieties of vegetables with low levels of these chemicals. This is best described as: A) natural selection B) artificial selection C) genetic drift D) bottleneck effects E) inducible defenses 52) Thrives in hot environments: A) methanogens B) extreme thermophiles C) extreme halophiles D) cyanobacteria E) crustaceans 53) Ichthyosaurs were aquatic dinosaurs. Fossils show us that they had dorsal fins and tails just as fish do, even though their closest relatives were terrestrial reptiles that had neither dorsal fins nor aquatic tails. The dorsal fins and tails of ichthyosaurs and fish are: A) homologous. B) adaptations to a different environment. C) examples of convergent evolution. D) examples of genetic drift E) really cool 54) The biological species concept is inadequate for grouping: A) asexual organisms. B) animals that migrate. C) sympatric populations. D) parasites. E) plants

55) According to the concept of punctuated equilibrium: A) natural selection is unimportant as a mechanism of evolution. B) given enough time, most existing species will branch gradually into new species. C) evolution of new species features long periods during which changes are occurring, interspersed with short periods of equilibrium or stasis. D) transitional fossils, intermediate between newer species and their parent species, should be abundant. E) a new species accumulates most of its unique features as it comes into existence. 56) According to the endosymbiotic theory of the origin of eukaryotic cells, how did mitochondria originate? A) from the nuclear envelope folding outward and forming mitochondrial membranes B) from infoldings of the plasma membrane, coupled with mutations of genes for oxygen- using metabolism C) when a protoeukaryote engaged in a symbiotic relationship with a protobiont D) from engulfed, originally free-living prokaryotes E) by tertiary endosymbiosis 57) Which of the following is characteristic of alternation of generations in land plants? A) Sporophytes and gametophytes are typically similar in appearance. B) Either the gametophyte or the sporophyte is unicellular. C) Gametophytes produce spores that develop into gametes. D) Haploid sporophytes make haploid spores. E) Sporophytes produces haploid spores by meiosis 58) Bryophytes have all of the following characteristics except: A) specialized cells and tissues. B) walled spores in sporangia. C) a reduced, dependent sporophyte. D) multicellularity. E) lignified vascular tissue. 59) Poisoned by oxygen: A) obligate anaerobe B) facultative aerobe C) obligate aerobe D) fungus. E) Montgomery Burns

 60) This is NOT a prezygotic reproductive barrier: A) mechanical isolation B) behavioural isolation C) habitat isolation D) gametic isolation E) hybrid inviability 61) Photosynthesis first arose in which kingdom? A) bacteria B) fungi C) plantae D) protista E) animalia 62) What is typically the result of double fertilization in angiosperms? A) Two embryos develop in every seed. B) A triploid zygote is formed. C) The endosperm develops into a diploid nutrient tissue. D) The fertilized antipodal cells develop into the seed coat. E) Both a diploid embryo and triploid endosperm are formed. 63) Group that includes dinoflagellates, apicomplexans and ciliates: A) euglenozoa B) alveolata C) parabasilids D) stramenopila E) kinetoplastida 64) An organism that obtains its energy from inorganic chemicals: A) chemoautotroph B) photoautotroph C) photoheterotroph D) oligotroph E) chemoheterotroph

65) Involved with reproduction away from water: A. pollen B. tracheids and phloem C. secondary compounds D. cuticle E. alternation of generations 66) Bacteria that causes LYME disease: A) Bacillus anthracis B) Mycobacterium tubeculosis C) Borrelia burgdorferi D) Chlamydia trachomatis E) Treponema pallidum 67) A seed from a flowering plant contains tissue that is : A) triploid B) diploid C) diploid and triploid D) haploid E) haploid, diploid and triploid 68) Natural selection is based on all of the following except: A) individuals must adapt to their environment. B) there is differential reproductive success within populations. C) variation exists within populations. D) populations tend to produce more individuals than the environment can support. 69) All of the following are criteria for maintaining Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium involving two alleles except: A) there should be no natural selection. B) matings must be random. C) populations must be large. D) the frequency of all genotypes must be equal. E) gene flow from other populations must be zero.

70) Geological period when most modern animal phyla are first seen in the fossil record: A) Ediacaran B) Cambrian C) Silurian D) Ordovician E) Devonian 71) The most recent common ancestor of all land plants was most similar to modern-day members of which group? A) brown algae B) red algae C) golden algae D) Cyanobacteria E) Charophycea 72) If a fern gametophyte has both male and female gametangia on the same plant then it: A) has lost the need for a sporophyte generation. B) is a mutant, because fern gametophytes are always either male or female. C) must be diploid. D) has antheridia and archegonia combined into a single sex organ. E) belongs to a species that is homosporous. 73) Which of the following most closely represents the male gametophyte of seed-bearing plants? A) microspore mother cell B) ovule C) pollen grain D) embryo sac E) fertilized egg 74) Which of the following flower parts develops into a fruit? A) receptacle B) stigma C) ovule D) ovary E) style

75) Mushrooms with gills, typically available in supermarkets, have meiotically produced spores located in or on ________ and belong to the phylum ________. A) basidia; Basidiomycota B) hyphae; Zygomycota C) asci; Basidiomycota D) hyphae; Ascomycota E) asci; Ascomycota

ANSWER KEY
1) E 2) A 3) A 4) B 5) B 6) D 7) B 8) E 9) A 10) C 11) A 12) B 13) D 14) C 15) D 16) B 17) A 18) B 19) B 20) C 21) E 22) B 23) E 24) D 25) C 26) A 27) B 28) D 29) E 30) D 31) D 32) E 33) E 34) B 35) A 36) B 37) C 38) A 39) D 40) B 41) E 42) A 43) A 44) D 45) C 46) C 47) B 48) E 49) B 50) E 51) B 52) B 53) C 54) A 55) E 56) D 57) E 58) E 59) A 60) E 61) A 62) E 63) B 64) A 65) A 66) C 67) D 68) A 69) D 70) B 71) E 72) E 73) C 74) D 75) A