CD COMPRE EXAM 2 KEY ANSWER 1.

A nurse is performing an assessment of a prenatal client being seen in the clinic for the first time. Following the assessment, the nurse determines that which piece of data places the client into the high risk category for contracting human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)? a. living in the area where population rate of HIV infection is low. b. A history of IV drug use in the past year c. History of one sexual partner within the past 10 years

6.

A nurse is performing an assessment on a 3 year old child with chicken pox. The childd mother tells the nurse that the child keeps scratching at night, and the nurse teaches the mother about measures that will prevent an alteration in skin integrity. Which statement by the mother indicates that teaching was effective? a. I will apply generous amounts of a cortisone cream to prevent itching. b. I need to place white gloves on my childs hands at night.

b. c. d.

Sips of warm fluids during a croup attack will help. I will give Tynelol for the fever. I will give cough syrup every night at bedtime.

12. A client with Chlamydia infection has received instructions on

self-care and prevention of further infection. The nurse determines that the client needs reinforcement of the instructions if the client states to: a. Reduce the chance of reinfection by limiting the number of sexual partners b. Use latex condoms to prevent disease transmission c. Return to the clinic as requested for follow-up culture in 1 week. d. Use antibiotics prophylactically to prevent symptoms of Chlamydia 13. A child is seen in the health care clininc and initial testing for HIV is performed because of the childs exposure to HIV infection. Which home care instruction would the nurse provide to the parents of the child?

c. d. 7.

I need to keep my child ia a warm room at night so that covers will not cause my child to scratch. I will give my child a glass of warm milk at bedtime to help my child sleep.

d.
2.

A spouse who is heterosexual and had only one sexual partner in the past 10 years.

A client with AIDS gets recurrent Candida infections (thrush) of the mouth. The nurse has given instructions to the client to minimize the occurrence of thrush and determines that the client understands the instructions if which statement is made by the client? a. I should brush my teeth and rinse my mouth once a day. b. I should use a strong mouthwash at least once a week. c. Increasing red meat in my diet will keep this from recurring. d. I should use warm saline or water to rinse my mouth. A nurse is teaching a client with AIDS how to avoid food borne illness. The nurse instructs the client to prevent acquiring infection from food by avoiding which of the following items? a. raw oysters b. pasteurized milk c. products with sorbitol d. bottled water A client with histoplasmosis has an order for ketoconazole (Nizoral). The nurse teaches the client to do which of the following while taking this medication? a. Take the medication on an empty stomach b. Take the medication with an antacid c. Avoid exposure to sunlight d. Limit alcohol to 2 ounces per day A nursing instructor asks a nursing student to describe live or attenuated vaccines. The student tells the instructor that these types of vaccines are: a. vaccines that have their virulence (potency) diminished so as to not produce a full-blown clinical illness. b. vaccines that contain pathogens made inactive by either chemical or heat. c. bacterial toxins that have been made inactive by either chemicals or heat. d. vaccines that have been obtained from the pooled blood of many people and provide antibodies to a variety of diseases.

A nurse instructs a client with hepatitis about measures to control fatigue. The nurse determines that the client needs additional instructions if the client states to: a. plan rest periods after meals b. rest between activities c. perform personal hygiene if not fatigue d. complete all daily activities in the morning when the client is most rested A clinic nurse has provided home care instructions to a female client who has been diagnosed with recurrent trichomoniasis. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further instructions? a. I need to perform good perineal hygiene. b. I need to refrain from sexual intercourse. c. I need to discontinue treatment if my menstrual cycle begin. d. I need to take metronidazole (Flagyl) for seven days. A client with AIDS has a nursing diagnosis of Imbalanced Nutrition: Less Than Body Requirements. The nurse has instructed the client about methods to maintain and increase weight. The nurse determines that the client would benefit from further instruction if the client stated to: a. Eat low-calorie snacks between meals b. Eat small, frequent meals throughout the day c. Consume nutrient-dense foods and beverages d. Keep easy-to-prepare foods available in the home

a.
b. c.

8.

Avoid all immunization until the diagnosis is established Avoid sharing toothbrushes Wipe up any blood spills with soap and water and allow to air dry Wash hands with half-strength bleach if they come in contact with the childs blood

d.

3.

9.

14. A nurse is caring for a client with AIDS. Which finding noted in the client indicates the presence of an opportunistic respiratory infection? a. white plaques located on the oral mucosa b. fever, exertional dypnea, and nonproductive cough c. loss of sight d. ulcerated perirectal lesions 15. A nurse is caring for a child diagnosed with rubeola. The nurse notes that the physician has documented the presence of Koplik spots. Based on this documentation, which of the following would the nurse expect to note on assessment of the child. a. petechiae spots that are reddish and pinpoint on the soft palate. b. Whitish vesicles located across the chest c. Small, blue-white spots with a red base found on the buccal mucosa

4.

5.

10. A nurse is teaching a client with histoplasmosis infection about prevention of future exposure to infectious sources. The nurse determines that the client needs further instructions if the client states that the potential infectious sources include: a. grape arbors b. mushroom cellars c. floors of chicken houses d. bird droppings 11. A clinic nurse provides instructions to a mother regarding the care of her child who is diagnosed with croup. Which statement by the mother indicates a need for further instructions? a. I will place a cool mist humidifier next to my childs bed.

d.

Pinpoint petechiae noted on both legs

16. A mother brings the child to the health care clinic.

The child has been complaining of severe headaches and has been vomiting. The child has a high fever, and the nurse notes the presence of nuchal rigidity in the child. The nurse suspects a possible diagnosis of bacterial meningitis. The nurse continues to assess the child for the presence of Kernigs sign. Which finding would indicate the presence of this sign. a. Inaability of the child to extend the legs fully when lying supine

Flexion of the hips when the neck is flexed from a lying position c. Pain when the chin is pulled down to the chest d. Calf pain when the foot is dorsiflexed 17. A nurse determines that a Mantoux tuberculin skin test is positive. In order to most accurately diagnose TB, the nurse plans to consult with the physician to follow-up the skin test with a: a. Chest X-RAY b. CT scan of the chest c. Sputum culture d. CBC 18. A nurse is planning care for a child with an infectious and communicable disease. The nurse determines that the primary goal is that the: a. Child will experience only minor complication b. Child will not spread the infection to others c. Public health department will be notified d. Child will experience mild discomfort 19. A mother of a child with mumps calls the health care clinic to tell the nurse that the child has been lethargic and vomiting. The nurse most appropriately tells the mother: a. to continue to monitor the child b. that lethargy and vomiting are normal manifestation of mumps c. to bring the child to the clinic to be seen by the physician d. that as long as there is no fever, there is nothing to be concerned about

b.

d.

Use tropical corticosteroids treatments prophylactically.

b. c.

You should not be too depressed; we are close to finding cure for AIDS You are right; it is very depressing to have HIV

23. A home care nurse begins caring for a 25 year old female client who has just been diagnosed with HIV infection. The client asks the nurse, How could this have happened? The nurse responds to the question based on the most frequent mode of HIV transmission, which is a. hugging HIV positive sexual partner without using barrier precautions. b. Inhaling cocaine c. Sharing food utensils with an HIV positive person without proper cleaning of the utensils

d.

Having sexual intercourse with an HIV positive person without using a condom

Tell me more about how you are feeling about being HIV positive. 30. The organism responsible for causing syphilis is classified as a: a. virus b. fungus c. rickettsia d. spirochete 31. The typical chancre of syphilis appears as a. a grouping of small, tender pimples b. an elevated wart c. a painless, moist chancre d. an itching, crusted area. 32. When interviewing a client with newly diagnosed syphilis, The public health nurse should be aware that the spread of the disease ca be controlled by a. motivating the client to undergo treatment b. obtaining a list of the clients sexual contacts c. increasing the clients knowledge of the disease d. reassuring the client that records are confidential. 33. Benzathine penicillin G, 2.4 million units IM, is prescribed as treatment for an adult client with primary syphilis. The intramuscular injection is administered in a. the deltoid b. the upper outer quadrant of the buttock c. the quadriceps lateralis of the thigh d. the midlateral aspect of the thigh 34. A priority nursing diagnosis for a client with primary syphilis a. Deficient Knowledge relataed to lack of exposure to information about mode of transmission b. Pain related tocutaneous skin lesion on palms and soles c. Ineffective tissue perfusion related to bleeding chancre d. Disturbed body image related to alopecia

d.

24. A client with HIV is taking zidovudine (AZT). AZT is a drug that acts to: a. destroy the virus

b.
c. d.

enhance the bodys antibody production slow replication of the virus neutralize the toxins produced by the virus

25. Women who have human papillomavirus (HPV) are at risk for development of: a. sterility b. cervical cancer c. uterine fibroid tissue d. irregular menses

20. A child with a diagnosis of hepatitis B is being cared for at

home. The mother of the child calls the health care clinic and tells the nurse that the jaundice seems to be worsening. The nurse makes which response to the mother? a. The hepatitis may be spreading. b. You need to bring the child to the health care clinic to see the physician. c. The jaundice may appear to get worse before it resolves. d. It is necessary to isolate the child from the others. 21. A nurse is planning to teach a client who is newly diagnose with TB on how to prevent the spread of TB. Which instruction would be least effective in preventing the spread of TB a. Teach the client to cover the mouth when coughing b. Teach the client to sterilize dishes at home c. Teach the client to properly dispose of facial tissues d. Teach the client that close contacts should be tested for TB 22. A nurse performs an initial assessment on a pregnant client and determines that the client is at risk for toxoplasmosis. The nurse would teach the client which of the following to prevent exposure to this disease? a. Wash hands only before meals b. Eat raw meats c. Avoid exposure to litter boxes used by cats.

26. Which of the following nursing diagnosis would most likely be

a priority for a client with herpes genitalis ? a. Disturbed sleep pattern b. Imbalance Nutrition: Less than Body Requirements c. Pain d. Ineffective Breathing Pattern

27. The primary reason that a herpes simplex virus (HSV)

infection is a serious concern to a client with HIV infection is that it a. is an acquired immunodeficiency virus defining illness b. is curable only after 1 year of antiviral therapy c. leads to cervical cancer d. causes severe electrolyte imbalances

35. An 18 year old female college student is seen at the

university health center. She undergoes a pelvic examination and is diagnosed with gonorrhea. Which of the following responses by the nurse would best when the client states that she is nervous about upcoming pelvic examination? a. Can you tell me more about how you are feeling b. Youre not alone. Most women feel uncomfortable about this examination c. Do not worry about Dr. Smith. He is specialist in female problems. d. Well do everything we can to avoid embarrassing you. 36. When educating a female with gonorrhea, the nurse should emphasize that for women, gonorrhea a. is often marked by symptoms of dysuria or vaginal bleeding b. does not lead to serious complication c. can be treated but not cured

28. In Educating a client about HIV, the nurses should take into
account the fact that the most effective method known to control the spread of HIV infection is: a. premarital serological screening b. prophylactic treatment of exposed people c. laboratory screening of pregnant woman d. ongoing sex education about preventive behaviors 29. A male client with HIV infection becomes depressed and tells the nurse, I have nothing worth living for now. Which of the following statements would be the best response by the nurse? a. You are yopung person and have a great deal to live for.

d.

may not cause symptoms until serious complication occurs

reflect the primary treatment. Emphasis will be on ensuring that the client receives which of the following? a. b. c. d. adequate bed rest generous fluid intake regular antibiotic therapy daily IV theraphy

37. Which of the following groups has experienced the greatest rise in the incidence of STDs over the past two decades a. teenagers b. divorced people c. young married couples d. older adults 38. A female client with gonorrhea informs the nurse that she has had sexual intercourse with her boyfriend and asks the nurse, Would he have any symptoms? The nurse responds that in men the symptoms of gonorrhea include a. impotence b. scrotal swelling c. urinary retention d. dysuria 39. The nurse assesses the mouth and oral cavity of a client with HIV because the most common opportunistic infection initially presents as a. HSV lesions on the lips b. Oral candidiasis c. CMV infection d. Aphthae on the gingival 40. The nurse is planning a community education program on how to prevent the transmission of viral hepatitis. Which of the following types of hepatitis is considered to be primarily a sexually transmitted disease? a. Hepatitis A b. Hepatitis B c. Hepatitis C d. Hepatitis D 41. The nurse would expect the client to exhibit which of the following symptoms during icteric phase of viral hepatitis? a. Tarry stool b. Yellowed sclera c. Shortness of breath d. Light, frothy urine 42. The nurse plans care for the client with Hepatitis A with the understanding that the causative virus will be excreted from the clients body primarily through the: a. skin b. feces c. urine d. blood 43. The nurse is planning a staff development program for health care staff on how to care for the clients with hepatitis A. Which of the following precautions would the nurse indicate as essential when caring for clients with Hepatitis A? a. Gowning when entering aclients room b. Wearing a mask when providing care c. Assigning the client to a private room d. Wearing gloves when giving direct care 44. When developing a plan of care for the client with viral hepatitis, the nurse should incorporate nursing orders that

45. Which of the following test results would the nurse use to assess the liver function of a client with viral hepatitis? a. glucose tolerance b. creatinine clearance c. serum transaminase d. serum electrolytes 46. In a client with viral hepatitis, the nurse would closely assesses for indicators of which of the following abnormal laboratory values? a. prolonged PT b. decreased blood glucose level c. elevated serum potassium d. decreased serum calcium 47. Which of the follwing diets would most likely be prescribed for a client with viral hepatitis? a. high fat, low protein b. high protein, low carbohydrates c. high crbohydrates, high calorie d. low sodium, low fat 48. The nurse develops a teaching plan for the client about how to prevent the transmission of hepatitis A. Which of the following discharge instructions is appropriate for the client? a. Spray the house to eliminate infected insects b. Tell the family members to try to stay away from the client. c. Tell the family members to wash their hands frequently d. Disinfect all clothing and eating utensils

clients health history, the nurse learns that the client has osteoarthritis, follows a vegetarian diet, and is very concerned with cleanliness. Which of the following would most likely be a predisposing factor for the diagnosis of pneumonia? A. Age B. Osteoarthritis c. Vegetarian diet d. Daily bathing 52. A client with bacterial pneumonia is to be started on IV antibiotics. Which of the following diagnostic tests must be completed before antibiotic therapy begins? a. Urinalysis b. Sputum culture c. Chest radiograph d. Red blood cell count 53. When caring for the client who is receiving an aninoglycoside antibiotic, the nurse monitors which of the following laboratory values?

a.
b. c. d.

Serum sodium serum potassium serum creatinine serum calcium

54. a client with pneumonia has a temperature of 102.6 deg F, is diaphoretic, and ahs a productive cough. The nurse include which of the following measures in the plan of care? a. Position changes every 4 hours b. sunctioning to clear secretions c. Frequent linen changes d. Frequent offering of bed pan 55. Bed rest is prescribed for a client with pneumonia during acute phase of the illness. Bed rest serves which of the following purposes? a. it reduces the cellular demand for oxygen b. it decreases the episodes of coughing c. it promotes safety d. it promotes clearance of secretions 56. The cyanosis that accompanies bacterial pneumonia is primarily caused by which of the following? a. decreased cardiac output b. pleural effusion c. inadequate peripheral circulation d. decreased oxygenation of the blood 57. A client with pneumonia is experiencing pleuritic chest pain. Which of the following describes pleuritic chest pain?

49. The nurse assesses that the client with hepatitis is

experiencing fatigue, weakness, and a general feeling of malaise. The client tires rapidly during morning care . Based on this information, which of the following would be an appropriate nursing diagnosis? a. Impaired physical mobility related to malaise b. Self-cared Deficit related to fatigue c. Ineffective Coping related to long term illness d. Activity Intolerance related to fatigue 50. A client has been admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of hepatitis B. the client tells the nurse, Ifeel so isolated from my friends and family. Nobody wants to be around me. What would be the most appropriate nursing diagnosis for this client? a. Anxiety related to feelings of isolation b. Social isolation related to significant others fear of contracting disease

a.
b. c. d.

a mild but constant aching in the chest severe midsternal pain moderate pain that worsen on inspiration muscle spasm pain that accompanies coughing

c.
d.

Powerlessness related to lack of social support Low-self Esteem related to feelings of rejection.

51. A 79 year old female client is admitted to the hospital with the diagnosis of bacterial pneumonia. While obtaining the

58. Which of the following measures would most likely be successful in reducing pleuritic cheast pain in client with pneumonia? a. encourage the client to breath slowly b. have the client practice abdominal breathing c. offer the client incentive spirometry

d.

Teach the client to splint the ribcage when coughing

c. d.

Para-aminosalisylic acid Ethambutol Hcl

b. c. d.

Has mutagenic effects on ova Decreases the effectiveness of oral contraceptives Inhibits ovulation

59. Aspirin is administered to clients with pneumonia because of its antipyretic and a. analgesic effects b. anticoagulant effects c. adrenergic effects d. antihistamine effects

66. The nurse should teach clients that the most common route of transmitting tubercle bacilli from person to person is through contaminated a. dust particles b. droplet nuclei c. water d. eating utensils 67. What is the rationale that supports multidrug treatment for clients with tuberculosis? a. Multiple drugs potentiate the drug actions b. Multiple drugs reduce undesireable side effects c. Multiple drugs allow reduced dosages to be given d. Multiple drugs reduce development of resistant strains of the bacteria 68. The client with TB is to be discharged home with community health nurse follow-up. Of the following interventions, which would have the highest priority? a. offering the client emotional support b. teaching the client about the disease and its treatment c. coordinating various agency services d. Assessing the clients environment for sanitation 69. Which of the following techniques for administering Mantoux test is correct? a. Hold the needle and syringe almost parallel to the clients skin b. Pinch the skin when inserting the needle c. Aspirate before injecting the medication d. Massage the site after injecting the medication 70. Which of the following family members exposed to TB would be at highest risk for contracting the disease? a. 45 year old mother b. 17 year old daughter c. 8 year old son d. 76 year old grandmother 71. A client has a positive reaction to the Mantoux test. The nurse correctly interprets this reaction to mean that the client has: a. active tuberculosis b. had contact with M. tuberculosis c. developed a resistance to tubercle bacilli d. developed passive immunity to TB 72. INH treatment is associated with the development of peripheral neuropathies. Which of the following interventions would the nurse teach the client to help prevent this complication? a. Adhere to a low-cholesterol diet b. Supplement the diet with pyridoxine (Vit. B6) c. Get extra rest d. Avoid excessive sun exposure. 73. The nurse should caution sexually active female clients taking INH that the drug has which of the following effects? a. Increases the risk of vaginal infection

74. Clients who have had active TB are at risk for recurrence. Which of the following conditions increases that risk? a. Cool and damp weather b. Active exercise and exertion c. Physical and emotional stress

60. Which of the following mental status changes may occur

when a client with pneumonia is first experiencing hypoxia? a. coma b. apathy c. Irritability d. Depression 61. The client with pneumonia develops mild constipation, and the nurse administers docusate sodium (COlace) as ordered. This drugs works by a. softening the stool b. lubricating the stool c. increasing stool bulk d. stimulating peristalsis 62, A client with pneumonia has a temperature ranging between 101 and 102 deg F and periods of diaphoresis. Based on this information, which of the following nursing interventions would be priority? A. Maintain Complete bed rest b. administer oxygen therapy c. provide frequent linen changes d. provide fluid intake of 3 liters/day 62. Which of the following would be appropriate expected outcome for an elderly client recovering from bacterial pneumonia? a. A respiratory rate of 25 to 30 breaths/ min b. The ability to perform activities of daily living c. A maximum lost of 5 to 10 pounds of body weight d. Chest pain that is minimized by splinting the ribcage. 63. Which of the following symptoms is common in clients with active tuberculosis? a. weight loss b. increased appetite c. dyspnea on exertion d. mental status changes

d.

Rest and inactivity

75. The nurse should include which of the following instructions when developing a teaching plan for clients who are receiving INH and rifampicin for treatment of TB? a. Take the medications with antacids b. Double the dosage if a drug dose is forgotten c. Increase intake of dairy products d. Limit alcohol intake 76. During the acute stage of meningitis, a 3 year old child is restless and irritable. Which of the following would be most appropriate to institute? a. limiting conversation with the child b. keeping extraneous noise to a minimum c. allowing the child to play in the minimum d. Performing treatments quickly 77. Which of the following would lead the nurse to suspect that a child with meningitis has developed disseminated intravascular coagulation? a. hemorrhagic skin rash b. edema c. cyanosis d. dyspnea on exertion

78. When interviewing the parents of a 2 year old child, a history

of the following illnesses would lead the nurse to suspect pneumococcal meningitis? a. bladder infection b. middle ear infection c. fractured clavicle d. septic arthritis

79. A preschooler with pneumonococci meningitis is receiving IV

antibiotic therapy. When discontinuing the IV therapy, the nurse allows the child to apply a dressing on the area where the needle is removed. The rationale for doing so is based on the interpretation that a child in this age group has need to accomplish which of the following? a. trust those caring for her b. find diversional activities c. protect the image of an intact body d. relieve the anxiety of separation from home 80. The physician has ordered a culture for the clients with suspected gonorrhea. The nurse should obtain a culture of: a. blood b. nasopharygeal secretions c. stool d. genital secretions

64. The nurse obtains a sputum specimen from a client with

suspected TB for laboratory study. Which of the following laboratory techniques is most commonly used to identify tubercle bacilli in sputum. a. Acid-fast testing b. Sensitivity testing c. Agglutination testing d. Dark field illumination 65. Which of the following antituberculosis drugs can cause damage to the eight cranial nerve? a. Streptomycin b. INH

81. A hospitalized preschooler with meningitis who is to be discharged becomes angry when the discharged is delayed. Which of the following play activities would most appropriate at this time? a. Reading the child a story b. Painting with watercolors c. pounding on a pegboard d. stacking a tower of blocks

88. Which of the following would the nurse include when teaching the father of an infant just admitted with gastroenteritis about initial treatment for his infant? a. the infant will receive no liquids by mouth b. IV antibiotics will be started

b. c.

After the acute stage passes the organism is usually not present in the stool. Although the organism may be alive indefinitely, in time it will be of no danger to anyone. If my child continues to have the organism in the stool, an antitoxin can help destroy the organism.

c.
d.

The infant will be placed in a mist tent An iron fortified formula will be used

d.

82. Which of the following would be an important assessment

finding for an 8 month of infant admitted with severe diarrhea? a. absent bowel sounds b. pale yellow urine c. normal skin elasticity d. depressed anterior fontanel 83. Which of the following would be the best activity for the nurse to include in the plan of care for an infant experiencing severe diarrhea? a. Monitoring the total 8 hour formula intake b. Weighing the infant each day c. Checking the anterior fontanel every shift d. Monitoring abdominal skin turgor every shift

89. The nurse teaches the father of an infant hospitalized with gastroenteritis about the next step of the treatment plan once the infants condition has been controlled. The nurse would determine that the father understands when he explains that which of the following will occur with his infant?

a.
b. c. d.

The infant will receive clear liquids for a period of time Formula and juice will be offered Blood will be drawn daily to test for anemia The infant will be allowed to go to the play room.

95. The child is started on a soft diet after having been on clear liquids following an episode of severe gastroenteritis. When helping the mother choose foods for her child, which of the following foods would be most appropriate? a. muffins and eggs b. bananas and rice cereal c. bran cereal and a bagel d. pancakes and sausage 96. When assessing a child diagnosed with diarrhea due to Salmonella, for which of the following possible sources would the nurse be alert during history taking? a. Nonrefrigerated custard b. A pet canary c. Undercooked eggs d. Unwashed fruit 97. Interferon alfa-2b has been prescribed to treat a client with chronic hepatitis B. What side effect is most commonly associated with the administration of interferon alpha-2b/ a. Retinophaty b. Constipation

84. The physician orders an intravenous infusion of 5 % dextrose

in .25 normal saline to be infused at 2 ml/kg/hour in an infant who weigh 9 lb. How many ml/hr of the solution should the nurse infuse? 85. Which of the following would be most appropriate for the nurse to teach the mother of a 6 month old infant hospitalized with severe diarrhea to help comfort her infant who is fussy? a. Offering a pacifier Placing a mobile above the crib Sitting at the crib side talking to the infant Turning the television on to cartoons

90. A child is admitted to the pediatric unit with the diagnosis of severe gastroenteritis. Which of the following would be most appropriate for the nurse to do? a. Institute standard precautions b. Place the child in a semiprivate room c. Use regular eating utensils d. Single- bag all linens 91. Which of the following would most likely alert the nurse to the possibility that a preschooler is experiencing moderate dehydration? a. Vomiting b. Diaphoresis c. Absence of tear formation d. Decreased urine specific gravity

c.
d.

Flu like symptoms Hypoglycemia

b.
c. d.

92. The physician orders IV fluid replacement therapy with

potassium chloride to be added for a child with severe gastroenteritis. Before adding the potassium chloride to the IV, which of the following assessments would be most important? a. Ability to void b. Passage of stool today c. Baseline echocardiogram d. Serum calcium level

98. A 19 year old male client is diagnosed with Chlamydia. Zithromax 1 gram is ordered. The supply of zithromax is in 250 milligram tablets. The number of tablets to be administered is:

a.
b.

86. which of the following nursing diagnosis would be appropriate for the nurse to identify as a priority diagnosis for an infant just admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of gastroenteritis? a. Pain related to repeated episodes of vomiting b. Deficient Fluid volume related to excessive losses from severe diarrhea c. Impaired parenting related to infants loss of fluid d. Impaired Urinary Elimination related to increased fluid intake feeding pattern 87. Which of the following would the nurse use to determine achievement of the expected outcome for an infant with severe diarrhea and nursing diagnosis of Deficient Fluid volume related to passage of profuse amounts of watery diarrhea? a. Moist mucous membranes b. Passage of a soft, formed stool c. Absence of diarrhea for a 4 hour period d. Ability to tolerate intravenous fluids well

4 tablets tablets 2 tablets tablets

c. 6 d. 8

99. A parent asks the nurse about headlice (pediculosis capitis) infestation during a visit to the clinic. Which of the following symptoms would the nurse tell the parent is most common in a child infected with head lice?

93. Which of the following would first alert the nurse to suspect
that a child with severe gastroenteritis who has been receiving IV therapy for the past several hours may be developing circulatory overload? a. a drop in blood pressure b. change to slow, deep respirations c. auscultation of moist crackles d. marked increase in urine output 94. The stool culture of a child with profuse diarrhea reveals Salmonella bacilli. After teaching the mother about the course of Salmonella enteritis, which of the following statements by the mother indicates effective teaching? a. Some people become carriers and stay infectious for a long time

a.
b. c. d.

itching of the scalp scaling of the scalp serous weeping of the scalp surface pinpoint hemorrhagic spots on the scalp surface

100. After teaching the parents about the cause of ringworm of the scalp (tinea capitis), which of the following, if stated by the father, indicates the successful teaching? a. overexposure to the sun b. Infestation with a mite c. Fungal infection of the scalp d. An allergic reaction 101. A mother asks the nurse, How did my children get pinworms? the nurse explains that pinworms are most

commonly spread by which of the following when contaminated? a. b. c. d. food hands animals toilet seats