1

DEPARTMENT MODEL QUESTION - I

HI GHER SECONDARY SECOND YEAR
MATHEMATICS
Ti me : 3 Hour s Max. Mar ks : 200
SECTI ON A 40 x 1 = 40
( i ) A l l qu est i o n s a r e comp u l so r y.
( i i ) E ach qu est i o n ca r r i es 1 mar k .
( i i i ) Ch oose t h e mo st su i tabl e an swer f r om t h e gi ven f ou r al t er n at i ves.
(1) I f A =

]
1
1
1
1
2
3
, then the rank of AA
T
i s
(1) 3 (2) 0 (3) 1 (4) 2
(2) I f the matri x

]
1
1
1 3 2
1 k 3
1 4 5
has an i nverse then the val ues of k
(1) k i s any real number (2) k = 4 (3) k 4 (4) k 4
(3) I f the equati on 2x + y + z = l
x 2y + z = m
x + y 2z = n
such that l + m + n = 0, then the system has
(1) a non-zero uni que sol uti on (2) tri vi al sol uti on
(3) Inf i ni tel y many sol utions (4) No Soluti on
(4) Whi ch of the fol lowi ng i s not true regardi ng the non-si ngul ar matri ces A, B
(1) A (adj A) = (adj A)A (2) (AB)
1
= B
1
A
1
(3) (AB)
T
= B
T
A
T
(4) (A
T
)
1
(A
1
)
T
(5) I f a

and b

are two uni t vectors and i s the angl e between them, then ( ) a

+ b

i s a unit vector i f
(1) =

3
(2) =

4
(3) =

2
(4) =
2
3
(6) The shortest di stance of the poi nt (2, 10, 1) f rom the pl ane r

. ( ) 3 i

+ 4 k

= 2 26 i s
(1) 2 26 (2) 26 (3) 2 (4)
1
26
(7) I f the magni tude of moment about the poi nt j

+ k

of a force
i

+ a j

acting through the poi nt i

+ j

i s 8 then the val ue of a i s

(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4
(8) I f the poi nts (3, 2, 4), (9, 8, 10) and (, 4, 6) are col l inear then i s
(1) 5 (2) 5 (3)
5
2
(4) 10
(9) The poi nt of i ntersecti on of the l i nes
x 6
6
=
y + 4
4
=
z 4
8
and
x + 1
2
=
y + 2
4
=
z + 3
2
i s
(1) (0, 0, 4) (2) (1, 0, 0) (3) (0, 2, 0) (4) (1, 2, 0)
(10) The centre and radi us of the sphere gi ven by x
2
+ y
2
+ z
2
6x + 8y 10z + 1 = 0 i s
(1) ( 3, 4, 5), 49 (2) ( 6, 8, 10), 1 (3) (3, 4, 5), 7 (4) (6, 8, 10), 7
(11) The val ue of

]
1
1 1 + i 3
2
100
+

]
1
1 1 i 3
2
100
i s
(1) 2 (2) 0 (3) 1 (4) 1
2
(12) I f the poi nt represented by the compl ex number i z i s rotated about the ori gi n through the angl e

2
i n the
counter clockwi se di recti on then the compl ex number representi ng the new posi ti on i s
(1) i z (2) i z (3) z (4) z
(13) I f
1 i
1 + i
i s a root of the equati on ax
2
+ bx + 1 = 0, where a, b are real then (a, b) i s
(1) (1, 1) (2) (1, 1) (3) (0, 1) (4) (1, 0)
(14) Whi ch of the fol l owi ng i s i ncorrect?
(1) | Z
1
Z
2
| = | Z
1
| | Z
2
| (2) | Z
1
+ Z
2
| | Z
1
| + | Z
2
|
(3) | Z
1
Z
2
| < | Z
1
| | Z
2
| (4) | Z
1
+ Z
2
|
2
= (Z
1
+ Z
2
)

,
_
Z
1

+ Z
2

(15) The axi s of the parabol a y

2
2y + 8x 23 = 0 i s
(1) y = 1 (2) x = 3 (3) x = 3 (4) y = 1
(16) The l i ne 4x + 2y = c i s a tangent to the parabol a y
2
= 16x then c i s
(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 4 (4) 4
(17) The area of the tri angl e formed by the tangent at any poi nt on the rectangul ar hyperbol a xy = 72 and i ts
asymptotes i s
(1) 36 (2) 18 (3) 72 (4) 144
(18) The centre of the el l i pse i s (4, 2) and one of the focus i s (4, 2). The other focus i s
(1) (4, 0) (2) (8, 0) (3) (4, 6) (4) (8, 6)
(19) The parametric equations of the curve x
2/3
+ y
2/3
= a
2/3
are
(1) x = a sin
3
; y = a cos
3
(2) x = a cos
3
; y = a sin
3

(3) x = a
3
sin ; y = a
3
cos (4) x = a
3
cos ; y = a
3
sin
(20)
lim
x 0
a
x
b
x
c
x
d
x
(1) (2) 0 (3) log
ab
cd
(4)
log ( ) a/b
log ( ) c/d
(21) The functi on f(x) = 1 x
2
i n 0 x 1 has
(1) no absol ute maxi mum (2) no absol ut e mi ni mum
(3) no l ocal maxi mum (4) absol ute and l ocal maxi mum
(22) The functi on f(x) = x
2
x + 1 i n [ 0, 1] i s
(1) an increasi ng f uncti on (2) a monotoni c functi on
(3) a decreasi ng functi on (4) nei ther decreasi ng nor i ncreasi ng
(23) If u =
1
x
2
+ y
2
, then x
u
x
+ y
u
y
is equal to
(1)
1
2
u (2) u (3)
3
2
u (4) u
(24) If u = y sin x, then

2
u
x y
is equal to
(1) cos x (2) cos y (3) sin x 4) 0
(25) The length of the arc of the curve x
2/3
+ y
2/3
= 4 is
(1) 48 (2) 24 (3) 12 (4) 96
(26) The curved surface area of a sphere of radius 5, intercepted between two parallel planes of distance 2 and 4
from the centre is
(1) 20 (2) 40 (3) 10 (4) 30
3
(27) Volume of solid obtained by revolving the area of the ellipse
x
2
a
2
+
y
2
b
2
= 1 about major and minor axes are in the ratio
(1) b
2
: a
2
(2) a
2
: b
2
(3) a : b (4) b : a
(28) The value of

/4
/4
x
3
sin
2
x dx is
(1) 0 (2) 1 (3)
1
2
(4)
1
2
(29) y = cx c
2
i s the general sol uti on of the di f f erenti al equati on
(1) (y)
2
xy + y = 0 (2) y = 0 (3) y = c (4) (y)
2
+ xy + y = 0
(30) The di f f erenti al equati on

,
_
dx
dy
2
+ 5y
1/3
= x i s
(1) of order 2 and degree 1 (2) of order 1 and degree 2
(3) of order 1 and degree 6 (4) of order 1 and degree 3
(31) Sol uti on of
dx
dy
+ mx = 0, i s
(1) x = ce
my
(2) x = ce
my
(3) x = my + c (4) x = c
(32) The particular integral of (D
2
+ 7D + 12)y = e
2x
is
(1) 30e
2x
(2)
1
22
e
2x
(3) 22 e
2x
(4)
1
30
e
2x
(33) Which of the following is a tautology?
(1) p q (2) p q (3) p p (4) p p
(34) p q is equivalent to
(1) p q (2) q p (3) (p q) (q p) (4) (p q) (q p)
(35) The value of [3] +
11 ( )
[5] +
11
[6] is
(1) [0] (2) [1] (3) [2] (4) [3]
(36) Whi ch of the fol lowi ng i s a statement?
(1) Give me a cup of tea (2) Wi sh you al l success
(3) How beauti f ul you are! (4) The set of rati onal numbers i s f ini te
(37) A random variable X has the following probability distribution
X 0 1 2 3 4 5
P(X = x) 1/4 2a 3a 4a 5a 1/4
Then P(1 x 4) is
(1)
10
21
(2)
2
7
(3)
1
14
(4)
1
2
(38) The distribution function F(X) of a random variable X is
(1) a decreasing function (2) non decreasing function
(3) a constant function (4) increasing first and then decreasing
(39) In a Poisson distribution if P(X = 2) = P(X = 3) then the value of its parameter is
(1) 6 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 0
(40) A property of cumul ati ve di stri buti on functi on F(x) i s
(1) i t is stri ctl y i ncreasi ng (2) 0 < F(x) < 1 , < x <
(3) F( ) = 1 (4) F() = 1
4
SECTI ON B
( i ) A n swer 10 qu est i on s.
( i i ) Qu est i on 55 i s comp u l sor y an d ch oo se an y 9 q u est i on s f r om t h e r em ai n i n g
( i i i ) E ach qu est i o n ca r r i es 6 mar k s.
(41) Exami ne the consi stency of the system of equati ons 10 6 = 60
2x 3y + 7z = 5, 3x + y 3z = 13, 2x + 19y 47z = 32
(42) Fi nd the adj oi nt of the matri x A =

]
1
1
1 2
3 5
and veri f y the resul t
A (adj A) = (adj A)A = | A | . I
(43) (a) For any vector r

prove that r

= ( ) r

. i

+ ( ) r

. j

+ ( ) r

. k

(b) Fi nd the proj ecti on of the vector 7 i

+ j

4 k

on 2 i

+ 6 j

+ 3 k

(44) Fi nd the vector and cartesi an equati on of the sphere on the joi n of the poi nts A and B havi ng posi ti on
vectors 2 i

+ 6 j

7 k

and 2 i

+ 4 j

3 k

respecti vel y as a di ameter. Fi nd al so the centre and radi us

of the sphere.
(45) I f arg (z 1) =

6
and arg (z + 1) = 2

3
then prove that | z | = 1
(46) Fi nd the two tangents that can be drawn f rom (1,2) to the hyperbol a 2x
2
3y
2
= 6
(47) Determi ne where the curve y = x
3
3x + 1 i s cancave upward, and where i t i s concave downward. Al so
f i nd the i nf l ecti on poi nts.
(48) (a) Show that e
x
i s stri ctl y decreasi ng i n R.
(b) Fi nd the Macl auri n s seri es for cos x.
(49) The ti me of swing T of a pendul um i s gi ven by T = k l where k i s a constant. Determi ne the percentage
error in the ti me of swi ng i f the l ength of the pendul um l changes f rom 32.1 cm to32.0 cm.
(50) Evaluate the following problem using properties of integration

0
3
x dx
x + 3 x
(51) Sol ve the fol l owi ng di f f erenti al equati on : (D
2
+ 3D 4) y = x
2
(52) Show that (p q) (p q) i s a tautol ogy.
(53) Suppose that the probability of suffering a side effect from a certain vaccine is 0.005. If 1000 persons are
inoculated. Find approximately the probability that (i) atmost 1 person suffer. (ii) 4, 5 or 6 persons suffer.
[e
5
= 0.0067]
(54) I f the hei ght of 300 students or normal l y di stri buted wi th mean 64.5 and standard devi ati on 3.3
f i nd the hei ght bel ow whi ch 99% of the students l i e.
f(x) = c e
x
2
+ 3x
, < X < .
(55) (a) I f (a
1
+ i b
1
) (a
2
+ i b
2
) (a
n
+ i b
n
) = A + i B,
prove that (i ) (a
1
2
+ b
1
2
) (a
2
2
+ b
2
2
) (a
n
2
+ b
n
2
) = A
2
+ B
2
(i i ) tan
1

_
b
1
a
1
+ tan
1

_
b
2
a
2
+ + tan
1

_
b
n
a
n
= n + tan
1

,
_
B
A
, n Z
OR
(b) Show that the set of f our matri ces

_
1 0
0 1
,

_
1 0
0 1
,

_
1 0
0 1
,

_
1 0
0 1
f orm an abel i an group,
under mul ti pl i cati on of matri ces.
5
SECTI ON C
( i ) A n swer 10 qu est i on s.
( i i ) Qu est i on 70 i s co mp u l so r y and ch oose an y 9 q u est i on s f r om t h e r ema i n i n g
( i i i ) E ach qu est i on ca r r i es 10 ma r k s.
(56) Sol ve the fol l owi ng by usi ng determi nant method. 10 10 = 100
x + y + 2z = 6 ; 3x + y z = 2 ; 4x + 2y + z = 8
(57) Show that the l ines
x 1
3
=
y 1
1
=
z + 1
0
and
x 4
2
=
y
0
=
z + 1
3
i ntersect and hence f i nd the poi nt of
i ntersecti on.
(58) Fi nd the vector and cartesi an equati on of the pl ane through the poi nt
(1, 3, 2) and paral l el to the l i nes
x + 1
2
=
y + 2
1
=
z + 3
3
and
x 2
1
=
y + 1
2
=
z + 2
2
(59) I f and are the roots of the equati on x
2
2px + (p
2
+ q
2
) = 0 and
tan =
q
y + p
show that
(y + )
n
(y +)
n

= q
n 1
si n n
si n
n

(60) A comet i s movi ng i n a parabol i c orbi t around the sun whi ch i s at the focus of a parabol a. When the comet
i s 80 mi l l i on kms f rom the sun, the l i ne segment f rom the sun to the comet makes an angl e of

3
radi ans
wi th the axi s of the orbi t. f i nd (i ) the equati on of the comet s orbi t (i i ) how cl ose does the comet come
nearer to the sun? (Take the orbi t as open rightward).
(61) Fi nd the eccentri ci ty, centre, f oci , verti ces of the ell i pse 25x
2
+ 9y
2
50x + 36y 164 = 0
(62) A car A i s travel l i ng f rom west at 50 km/hr. towards East and car B i s travel l ing towards north at 60 km/hr.
Both are headed f or the intersecti on of the two roads. At what rate are the cars approachi ng each other
when car A i s 0.3 ki l ometers and car B i s 0.4 ki l ometers f rom the i ntersecti on?
(63) A poster i s to have an area of 180 cm
2
wi th 1 cm margi ns at the bottom and si des and a 2 cm margi n at the
top. What di mensions wi l l gi ve the l argest pri nted area?
(64) Trace the fol l owi ng curve : y = x
3
(65) Fi nd the area between the curves y = x
2
x 2, x-axi s and the l i nes x = 2 and x = 4
(66) Deri ve the formul a f or the vol ume of a right ci rcul ar cone wi th radi us r and height h .
(67) Solve : (1 + e
x/y
)dx + e
x/y
(1 x/y) dy = 0 gi ven that y = 1, where x = 0
(68) Show that the set G of al l rati onal numbers except 1 f orms an abel i an group wi th respect to the operati on
* gi ven by a * b = a + b + ab for al l a, b G.
6
(69) Find the Mean and Variance for the following probability density function
f(x) =

'

xe
x
, if x > 0
0 ,otherwise
(70) (a) The rate at whi ch the popul ati on of a ci ty i ncreases at any ti me i s proporti onal to the popul ation at that
ti me. I f there were 1,30,000 peopl e i n the ci ty i n 1960 and 1,60,000 i n 1990 what popul ati on may be
anti ci pated i n 2020.
(OR)
(b) A satel l i te i s travel l i ng around the earth i n an el l i pti cal orbi t havi ng the earth at a f ocus and of
eccentri ci ty 1/2 . The shortest di stance that the satel l i te gets to the earth i s 400 kms. Fi nd the longest
di stance that the satel l i te gets f rom the earth.
6
MODEL QUESTION PAPER
Higher Secondary Second Year Physics
Ti me : 3 hrs . Mark : 1 5 0
PART I
Not e : (i ) Ans wer a l l t he ques t i ons . 3 0 x 1 = 3 0
(i i ) Choos e a nd wri t e t he correct a ns wer.
(i i i ) Ea ch ques t i on ca rri es one ma rk .
1. A dipole is pla ced in a u n ifor m elect r ic field wit h it s a xis pa r a llel t o t h e field.
It exper ien ces
(a ) on ly a n et for ce (b) on ly a t or qu e
(c) bot h a n et for ce a n d t or qu e (d) n eit h er a n et for ce n ot a t or qu e
2. Th e u n it of per mit t ivit y is
(a ) NC
2
m
2
(b) Hm
1
(c) C
2
N
1
m
2
(d) Nm
2
C
2
3. Th e n u mber of lin es of for ce t h a t r a dia t e ou t wa r ds fr om on e cou lomb ch a r ge
is
(a ) 1.13 10
11
(b) 8.85 10
11
(c) 9 10
9
(d) in fin it e
4. On movin g a ch a r ge of 20 C by 2 cm, 2J of wor k is don e, t h en t h e pot en t ia l
differ en ce bet ween t h e poin t s is
(a ) 0.5 V (b) 0.1 V
(c) 8 V (d) 2 V
5. In t h e ca s e of in s u la t or s , a s t h e t emper a t u r e decr ea s es , r es is t ivit y
(a ) in cr ea s es (b) decr ea s es
(c) becomes zer o (d) r ema in s con t a n t
6. In a t a n gen t ga lva n omet er , for a con s t a n t cu r r en t , t h e deflect ion is 30
o
. Th e
pla n e of t h e coil is r ot a t ed t h r ou gh 90
o
. Now, for t h e s a me cu r r en t , t h e
deflect ion will be
(a ) 0
o
(b) 30
o
(c) 60
o
(d) 90
o
7. In a t h er mocou ple, t h e t emper a t u r e of t h e cold ju n ct ion is 20
o
C, t h e
t emper a t u r e of in ver s ion is 520
o
C. Th e n eu t r a l t emper a t u r e is
(a ) 500
o
C (b) 540
o
C
(c) 270
o
C (d) 510
o
C
7
8. Elect r oma gn et ic in du ct ion is n ot u s ed in
(a ) t r a n s for mer (b) r oom h ea t er
(c) AC gen er a t or (d) ch oke coil
9. Wh ich of t h e followin g devices does n ot a llow d.c. t o pa s s t h r ou gh ?
(a ) r es is t or (b) ca pa cit or
(c) in du ct or (d) a ll t h e a bove
10. Th e u n it h en r y ca n a ls o be wr it t en a s
(a ) VA
1
s (b) s
(c) wb A
1
(d) a ll
11. In a n AC cir cu it , t h e cu r r en t I = I
o
s in (t / 2) la gs beh in d t h e emf
e = E
o
s in (t + / 2) by
(a ) 0 (b) / 4
(c) / 2 (d)
12. In a n elect r oma gn et ic wa ve, t h e ph a s e differ en ce bet ween elect r ic field a n d
ma gn et ic field is
(a ) 0 (b) / 4
(c) / 2 (d)
13. Of t h e followin g, wh ich on e is a bia xia l cr ys t a l?
(a ) t ou r ma lin e (b) ice
(d) ca lcit e (d) mica
14. If t h e wa velen gt h of t h e ligh t is r edu ced t o h a lf, t h en t h e a mou n t of
s ca t t er in g will
(a ) in cr ea s e by 16 t imes (b) decr ea s e by 16 t imes
(c) in cr ea s e by 256 t imes (d) decr ea s e by 256 t imes
15. A Nicol pr is m is ba s ed on t h e pr in ciple of
(a ) r efr a ct ion (b) r eflect ion
(c) dou ble r efr a ct ion (d) diffr a ct ion
16. Th e r a t io of r a dii of t h e fir s t t h r ee Bh or or bit s is
(a ) 1 : 2 : 3 (b) 1 :
1
2
:
1
3
(c) 1 : 8 : 27 (d) 1 : 4 : 9
8
17. In h ydr ogen a t om, wh ich of t h e followin g t r a n s it ion s pr odu ce a s peet r a l lin e
of ma ximu m fr equ en cy?
(a ) 2 1 (b) 6 2
(c) 4 3 (d) 5 2
18. In Millika n s exper imen t , a n oil dr op of ma s s 4.9 10-14 kg is ba la n ced
by a pplyin g a pot en t ia l differ en ce of 2 kV bet ween t h e t wo pla t es wh ich a r e
2 mm a pa r t . Th e ch a r ge of t h e dr op is
(a ) 1.96 10
1 8
C (b) 1.602 10
19
C
(c) 12 C (d) 4.9 10
19
C
19. If t h e pot en t ia l differ en ce bet ween t h e ca t h ode a n d t h e t a r get of coolidge
t u be is 1.24 10
5
V, t h en t h e min imu m wa velen gt h of con t in u ou s xr a ys
is
(a ) 10 (b) 1
(c) 0.1 (d) 0.01
20. Th e ph ot oelect r ic effect ca n be expla in ed on t h e ba s is of
(a ) cor pu s cu la r t h eor y (b) wa ve t h eor y
(c) elect r oma gn et ic t h eor y (d) qu a n t u m t h er y
21. Th e wa velen gt h of t h e ma t t er wa ve is in depen den t of
(a ) ma s s (b) velocit y
(c) momen t u m (d) ch a r ge
22. Th e t ime t a ken by t h e r a dioa ct ive elemen t t o r edu ce t o 1/ e t imes is
(a ) h a lf life (b) mea n life
(c) h a lf life/ 2 (d) t wice t h e mea n life
23. Th e ion is a t ion power is ma ximu m for
(a ) n eu t r on s (b) a lph a pa r t icles
(c) ga mma r a ys (d) bet a pa r t icles
24. Wh en
5
B
10
is bomba r ded wit h n eu t r on a n d pa r t icle is emit t ed, t h e
r es idu a l n u cleu s is
(a )
3
Li
7
(b)
1
H
2
(c)
1
H
3
(d)
2
He
4
25. In a n u clea r r ea ct or ca dmiu m r ods a r e u s ed t o
(a ) s peed u p n eu t r on s (b) s low down n eu t r on s
(c) a bs or b n eu t r on s (d) r emove h ea t
9
26. In a Colpit t s os cilla t or cir cu it
(a ) ca pa cit ive feedba ck is u s ed (b) t a pped coil is u s ed
(c) n o t u n ed LC cir cu it is u s ed (d) n o ca pa cit or is u s ed
27. An exa mple of n t ype s emicon du ct or is
(a ) pu r e ger ma n iu m (b) pu r e s ilicon
(c) s ilicon doped wit h ph os ph or u s (d) ger ma n iu m doped wit h bor on
28. Wh a t will be t h e in pu t of A a n d B for t h e Boolea n exper es s ion
(A + B ) . (A . B) = 1?
(a ) 0, 1 (b) 1, 0
(c) 0, 0 (d) 1, 1
29. In T.V. t r a n s mis s ion , t h e pict u r e s h ou ld n ot be s ca n n ed du r in g t h e r et u r n
jou r n ey of t h e s ca n n in g. Th is is don e by
(a ) bla n kin g pu ls e (b) s a w t oot h pot en t ia l
(c) h or izon t a l s yn ch r on is in g pu ls e (d) ver t ica l s yn ch r on is in g pu ls e
30. Th r ou gh wh ich mode of pr opa ga t ion , t h e r a dio wa ves ca n be s en t fr om on e
pla ce t o a n ot h er
(a ) Gr ou n d wa ve pr opa ga t ion (b) Sky wa ve pr opa ga t ion
(c) Spa ce wa ve pr opa ga t ion (d) All t h e a bove
PART II
Not e : (i ) Ans wer a ny 1 5 ques t i ons . 1 5 x 3 = 4 5
31. St a t e cou lombs la w in elect r os t a t ics .
32. Wh y is it s a fer t o be in s ide a ca r t h a n s t a n din g u n der a t r ee du r in g ligh t n in g?
33. Wh a t a r e t h e a dva n t a ges of s econ da r y cells ?
34. Th e r es is t a n ce of a n ich r ome wir e a t 0
o
C is 10 . If it s t emper a t u r e coefficien t
of r es is t a n ce is 0.004/
o
C, fin d it s r es is t a n ce a t boilin g poin t of wa t er .
35. Wh a t is ca lled s u per con du ct ivit y?
36. Defin e; a mper ein t er ms of for ce.
37. Wh a t h a ppen s t o t h e va lu e of cu r r en t in RLC s er ies cir cu it , if fr eqen cy of t h e
s ou r ce is in cr ea s ed?
38. If t h e r a t e of ch a n ge of cu r r en t of 2 As
1
in du ces a n emf of 10 mV in a s olen oid,
wh a t is t h e s elf in du ct a n ce of t h e s olen oid?
39. Wh y does t h e s ky a ppea r blu e in colou r ?
40. Th e r efr a ct ive in dex of t h e mediu m is 3. Ca lcu la t e t h e a n gle of r efr a ct ion if
t h e u n pola r is ed ligh t is in ciden t on it a t t h e pola r is in g a n gle.
10
41. St a t e t h e pos t u la t es of Boh r a t om model.
42. In Br a ggs s pect r omet er , t h e gla n cin g a n gle for fir s t or der s pect r u m wa s
obs er ved t o be 8
o
. Ca lcu la t e t h e cr ys t a l la t t ice s pa cin g, if t h e wa velen gt h of
t h e xr a y is 0.7849.
43. Men t ion a n y t h r eee a pplica t ion s of ph ot o elect r ic cells .
44. Wh a t is deca y? Give a n exa mple.
45. Defin e: Cu r ie
46. Dr a w t h e block dia gr a m of a n os cilla t or a n d men t ion t h e compon en t s .
47. Th e ga in of t h e a mplifier is 100. If 5% of t h e ou t pu t volt a ge is fedba ck in t o t h e
in pu t t h r ou gh a n ega t ive feed ba ck n et wor k, fin d ou t t h e volt a ge ga in a ft er
feedba ck.
48. Men t ion t h e a dva n t a ges of ICS.
49. Defin e t h e in pu t impeda n ce of a t r a n s is t or in CE mode.
50. Wh a t is mea n t by s kip dis t a n ce?
Part III
Not e : (i ) Ans wer t he ques t i on 6 0 comp ul s ori l y . 7 x 5 = 3 5
(i i ) Of t he rema i ni ng 1 1 ques t i ons , a ns wer a ny s i x ques t i ons .
(i i i ) Dra w d i a gra ms wherever neces s a ry
51. Th e pla t es of a pa r a llel pla t e ca pa cit or h a ve a n a r ea of 90 cm
2
ea ch a n d a r e
s epa r a t ed by 2.5 mm. Th e ca pa cit or is ch a r ged by con n ect in g it in t o a 400 V
s u pply. How mu ch elect r os t a t ic en er gy is s t or ed by t h e ca pa cit or .
52. Obt a in t h e con dit ion for br idge ba la n ce in Wh ea t s t on es br idge.
53. Expla in t h e met h od t o compa r e t h e emfs of t wo cells u s in g pot en t iomet er .
54. A cir cu la r coil of 50 t u r n s a n d r a diu s 25 cm ca r r ies a cu r r en t of 6A. It is
s u s pen ded in a u n ifor m ma gn et ic field of in du ct ion 10
3
T. Th e n or ma l t o t h e
pla n e of t h e coil ma kes a n a n gle of 60
o
wit h t h e field. Ca lcu la t e t or qu e of t h e
coil.
55. Expla in t h e va r iou s en er gy los s es in a t r a n s for mer .
56. Der ive t h e expr es s ion for t h e r a diu s of t h e n
t h
da r k r in g.
57. Expla in t h e s pect r a l s er ies of h ydr ogen a t om.
58. Obt a in Ein s t ein s ph ot o elect r ic equ a t ion .
59. Es t a blis h Ein s t ein s ma s s -en er gy equ iva len ce, E = mc
2
.
11
60. Ca lcu la t e t h e bin din g en er gy a n d bin din g en er gy per n u cleon of
20
Ca
40
n u cleu s .
Given , ma s s of 1 pr ot on = 1.007825 a mu ; ma s s of 1 n eu t r on = 1.008665 a mu ;
ma s s of
20
Ca
40
n u cleu s = 39.96259 a mu .
Or
Ca lcu la t e t h e ma s s of coa l in t on r equ ir ed t o pr odu ce t h e s a me en er gy a s
t h a t pr odu ced by t h e fis s ion of 1 kg of U
235
. Given : Hea t of combu s t ion of
coa l = 33.6 10
6
J / kg ; 1 t on = 1000 kg ; En er gy per fis s ion of
U
235
= 200 MeV ; Ava ga dr o n u mber = 6.023 10
23
.
61. Dr a w t h e fr equ en cy r es pon s e cu r ve of s in gle s t a ge CE a mplifier a n d dis cu s s
t h e r es u lt s .
62. Dr a w t h e fu n ct ion a l block dia gr a m of AM r a dio t r a n s mit t er .
PART IV
Not e : (i ) Ans wer a ny 4 ques t i ons i n d et a i l . 4 x 1 0 = 4 0
(i i ) Dra w d i a gra ms wherever neces s a ry
63. Wh a t is a n elect r ic dipole? Der ive a n expr es s ion for t h e elect r ic field du e t o
a n elect r ic dipole a t a poin t on it s a xia l lin e.
64. Dis cu s s t h e mot ion of a ch a r ged pa r t icle in a u n ifor m ma gn et ic field.
65. Dis cu s s wit h t h eor y, t h e met h od of in du cin g emf in a coil by ch a n gin g it s
or ien t a t ion wit h r es pect t o t h e dir ect ion of t h e ma gn et ic field.
66. Wh a t is kn own a s in t er fer en ce? Der ive a n expr es s ion for ba n dwidt h of
in t er fer en ce fr in ges in you n gs dou ble s lit exper imen t .
67. Wit h t h e h elp of en er gy level dia gr a m expla in t h e wor kin g of HeNe la s er .
68. Des cr ibe Ba in br idge ma s s s pect r omet er t o det er min e t h e is ot opic ma s s es of
n u clei.
69. Wh a t is kn own a s r ect ifica t ion ? Expla in t h e br idge r ect ifier .
70. Wit h t h e h elp of block dia gr a m, expla in t h e mon och r ome TV r eceiver .
7
Model Question Paper
PART - III
CHEMISTRY ENGLISH VERSION
Time Allowed:3 Hours Max Marks: 150
Note : i. Answer all the questions from Part -1
i i . Answer any fifteen questions from Part - II
iii. Answer any seven questions from Part-III covering all sections and choosing atleast two from each
secti on.
iv. Answer question number 70 and any three from the remaining questions in Part IV.
v. Draw diagrams and write equations wherever necessary.
PART I
Note : Answer all the questions (30 x 1 = 30)
Choose and write the correct answer
1. En = -313.6/n
2
, If the value of Ei = -34.84 to which value n corresponds to
(a) 4 (b) 3 (c) 2 (d) 1
2. The bond order of nitrogen molecule is
(a) 2.5 (b) 3 (c) 2 (d) 4
3. Noble gases have _____ electron affinity
(a) High (b) Low (c) Zero (d) Very low
4. The shape of XeF
4
is
(a) Tetrahedral (b) Octahedral
(c) Square planar (d) Pyramidal
5. Copper is extracted from
(a) Cuprite (b) Copper glance
(c) Malachite (d) Copper Pyrites
6. Silver salt used in photography is
(a) AgCl (b) AgNO
3
(c) AgF (d) AgBr
7. The most common oxidation state of Lanthanides is
(a) +2 (b) +1 (c) +3 (d) +4
8. ________ is used in gas lamp material
(a) MnO
2
(b) CeO
2
(c) N
2
O
5
(d) Fe
2
O
3
9. The geometry of [Ni(CN)
4
]
2-
is
(a) Tetrahedral (b) Square Planar (c) Triangular (d) Octahedral
10. Which of the following is used as neutron absorber in nuclear reactors?
(a) Water (b) Deuterium (c) Uranium (d) Cadmium
11. The number of chloride ions present per unit of CsCl
(a) 6 (b) 8 (c) 1 (d) 4
8
12. In an adiabatic process which of the following is correct?
(a), q=w (b) q=0 (c) E=q (d) PV=0
13. When a liquid boils, there is
(a) an increase in entropy (b) a decrease in entropy
(c) an increase in heat of vapourisation
(d) an increase in free energy
14. State of Chemical equilibrium is
(a) Dynamic (b) Stationary (c) Both a&b (d) None
15. For an endothermic equilibrium reaction, if K
1
and K
2
are the equilibrium constants at T
1
and T
2
temperatures
respectively and if T
2
>T
1
, then
(a) K
1
< K
2
(b) K
1
>K
2
(c) K
1
= K
2
(d) None
16. The unit of zero order rate constant is
(a) sec
-1
(b) mol lit
-1
sec
-1
(c) mol sec
-1
(d) lit
2
sec
-1
17. Oil soluble dye is mixed with emulsion and emulson remains colorless then, the emulsion is
(a) O/W (b) W/O (c) O/O (d) W / W
18. Colloids are purified by
(a) precipitation (b) Coagulation (c) Dialysis (d) Filtration
19. Fe(OH)
3
colloidal particles adsorb _______ ions
(a) Fe
3+
(b) Mg
2+
(c) Ca
2+
(d) Cu
2+
20. Ostwalds dilution law is applicable to the solution of
(a) CH
3
COOH (b) NaCl (c) NaOH (d) H
2
SO
4
21. The reaction of Lucas reagent is fast with
(a) ethanol (b) methanol (c) 2-propanol (d) 2-methyl 2-propanol
22. An organic compound C
4
H
10
O when heated with excess HI gives only one type of alkyl iodide. The
Compound is
(a) diethylether (b) methyl n-propylether
(c) methyl iso propyl ether (d) n-butyl alcohol
23. When ether is exposed to air for sometime an explosive substance produced is
(a) Peroxide (b) Oxide (c) TNT (d) Superoxide
24. The compound that does not undergo Cannizzaro reaction is
(a) Formaldehyde (b) Acetaldehyde
(c) Benzaldehyde (d) Trimethyl Acetaldehyde
25. Which of the following is least acidic?
(a) C
2
H
5
OH (b) CH
3
COOH (c) C
6
H
5
OH (d) ClCH
2
COOH
26. Nitration of nitrobenzene results in
(a) O-dinitro benzene (b) 1,3,5-trinitro benzene
(c) p-dinitrobenzene (d) m-dinitrobenzene
27. Primary amine acts as
(a) Electrophile (b) Lewis base (c) Lewis acid (d) Free radical
9
28. Which of the following will not undergo diazotisation?
(a) m-toluidine (b) aniline (c) p-amino phenol (d) benzylamine
29. Important constituent of cell wall is
(a) Lipid (b) Cellulose (c) Protein (d) Vitamin
30. The most abundant carbohydrate is
(a) glucose (b) fructose (c) starch (d) cellulose
PART-II
Note : (15X3 = 45)
(i) Answer any 15 questions.
(ii) Answer in one or two sentences :
31. State Heisenbergs uncertainity principle.
32. Mention the disadvantage of Pauling Scale.
33. What is plumbo solvency.
34. Write the uses of Neon.
35. Why transition elements form complexes?
36. What is the action of heat on copper sulphate crystals?
37. How many and particles will be emitted by an element
84
A
218
is changing to a stable isotope of
82
B
206
?
38. What are superconductors?
39. Calculate the change of entropy for the process, water (liquid) water (vapour 373K) involving H
(vap)
=
40850J mol
-1
373K
40. State Lechatliers principle.
41. Define half life period.
42. What are simple and complex reactions?
43. Why colloidal system of gas in gas does not exist?
44. State Faraday s first law.
45. Distinguish enantiomers and diastereomers.
46. How is phenolphthalein prepared?
47. Explain the synthesis of glycerol from propylene.
48. Formaldehyde and benzaldehyde give Cannizzaro reaction but acetaldehyde does not account for this?
49. Formic acid reduces Tollens reagent, but acetic acid does not. Give reason.
50. An organic compound (A) having molecular formula C
2
H
7
N is treated with nitrous acid to give (B) of
molecular formula C
2
H
6
O which on mild oxidation gives compound (C) of molecular formula C
2
H
4
O which
answers Tollens reagent test. Identify A, B, C.
51. Ilustrate with suitables the term Anaesthetics.
1 0
PART - III
Note : (7 x 5 = 35)
(i) Answer any Seven questions choosing at least two questions from each section.
Section - A
52. The approximate mass of an electron is 10
-27
g. Calculate the uncertainty in its velocity. If the the
uncertainity in its position were of the order of 10
-11
m.
53. Explain the extraction of silver from its chief ore.
54. What is Ianthanide contraction? Discuss its consequences.
55. Explain Co-ordination isomerism and ionisation isomerism with suitable examples.
Section - B
56. In the thermal decomposition of N
2
O at 764C, the time required to decompose half of the reactant was
263 seconds, when the initial pressure was 290 mm of Hg and 212 seconds at an initial pressure of 360
mm of Hg. What is the order of this reaction?
57. State the various statements of second law of Thermodynamics.
58. Derive the integrated Vant Hoff equation for an equilibrium reaction.
59. Derive Nernst equation.
Section - C
60. Distinguish between aromatic and aliphalic ethers.
61. Write notes on
i) Perkins reaction and
ii) Knoevenagal reaction
62. Discuss the mechanism of bromination of salicyclic acid.
63. Explain briefly on characteristics of rocket propellants.
PART-IV
(4 x 10 = 40)
Note : Answer question number 70 and any three from the remaining questions.
64. (a) Write notes on Paulings and Mullikens Scale of Electronegativity. [5]
(b) Give an account of the structure of ortho and cyclic silicates. [5]
65. (a) Explain Werners theory of coordination compounds. [5]
(b) Explain the uses of radioactive isotopes with examples. [5]
66. (a) Write notes on any two point defects in Crystals [5]
(b) Write notes on (i) Ultrafiltration and (ii) Helmholtz double layer [5]
67. (a) Derive Henderson Equation. [5]
(b) Write notes on single electrode potential. [5]
68. (a) Which conformation of cyclohexanol forms intermolecular hydrogen bonding more easily?
Explain. [5]
(b) How are the following conversions carried out?
(i) Salicylic acid aspirin
(ii) Salicyclic acid methylsalicylate
(iii) lacticacid lactide
1 1
69. (a) How can the following conversions be effected? [5]
i. Nitrobenzene to anisole
ii. Chlorobenzene to phenyl hydrazine
iii. Aniline to Benzoic acid
(b) Mention the biological functions of nucleic acids [5]
70. (a) An organic compound A (C
7
H
6
O
2
) reacts with NH
2
OH forming a crystalline compound. On warming
with NaOH it forms two compounds B and C. B is neither soluble in NaOH nor in HCl but can be
oxidised to A. The compound C on treatment with Con. HCl forms acid D which on treating with soda
lime gives phenol. Identify A to D. [5]
(b) Chief ore of chromium (A) on roasting with Sodium carbonate gives compound (B) and (C). B on
acidification gave compound (D) which on treatment with KCl gave compound (E). Identify the compounds
A, B,C,D and E. Explain with proper chemical reactions. [5]
(OR)
(c) An organic compound A (C
6
H
6
O) gives maximum of two isomers B and C when an alkaline solution
of A is refluxed with chloroform at 333K. B on oxidation gives an acid D. The acid D is also obtained
by treating sodium salt of A with CO
2
under pressure. Identify the compounds A, B, C and D and
explain with proper chemcial reactions. [5]
(d) Calculate the pH of O.IM CH
3
COOH Solution Disassociation constant of
acetic acid is 1.8 x 10
-5
M. [5]
4
PART III
XII STANDARD BIO-BOTANY
Time allowed : 3.00 Hrs Maximum Marks : 75
(Bio-Botany 1 Hrs and Bio-Zoology 1 Hrs)
SECTION - A
14 x 1 = 14
Note : 1. Answer all the questions.
2. Choose and write the correct option.
3. Each question carries one mark.
1. The bionomial system of nomenclature was introduced by
a. Carolus Linnaeus b. Gaspard Bauhin
c. Robert Brown d. Dalton Hooker
2. Plants having flowers with conical thalamus are placed in
a. disciflorae b. calyciflorae
c. thalamiflorae d. inferae
3. Anthers are reniform in
a. Malvaceae b. Solanaceae
c. Euphorbiaceae d. Liliaceae
4. The meristem that is parallel to longitudinal axis of the plant is
a. procambium b. intercalary meristem
c. phellogen d. apical meristem
5. In maize, the conjunctive tissue is made up of
a. parenchyma b. collenchyma
c. sclerenchyma d. aerenchyma
6. L-shaped eukaryotic chromosome is named as
a. telocentric b. acrocentric
c. sub-metacentric d. metacentric
7. Dihybrid test cross coupling ratio is
a. 1:1:1:1 b. 7:1:1:7
c. 1:7:7:1 d. 7:1:7:1
8. It is used to join the two DNA fragments
a. Restriction enzyme b. Ligase
c. Polymerase d. Topoisomerase
9. The alga used for single cell protein production is
a. Pseudomonas b. Alkaligenes
c. Spirulina d. Volvoriella
5
10. An example for C
4
plant is
a. Maize b. Tribulus
c. Amaranthus d. Sugarcane
11. Dickens discovered
a. pentose phosphate pathway b. glycolysis
c. amphibolic pathway d. C
2
cycle
12. The hormone synthesised in large amounts by tissues undergoing ageing is
a. auxin b. gibberellin
c. cytokinin d. ethylene
13. Pyricularia oryzae causes
a. blase disease of rice b. tikka disease of groundnut
c. citrus canker d. tungro disease of rice
14. Which one of the following is an antimalarial drug?
a. Ephedrine b. Digoxin
c. Quinine c. Morphine
Section B
7 x 3 = 21
Note : 1. Answer any 7 questions.
2. Each question carries 3 marks.
15. State any three medicinally useful plants of Solanaceae and write of their uses.
16. Draw the floral diagram of Allium cepa and write the floral formula.
17. What is bicollateral vascular bundle? Give example.
18. Draw the structure of aerenchyma. Label the parts.
19. Draw the structure of chromosome. Label the parts.
20. What three sentences about splicing?
21. Differentiate cyclic and non-cycle photophosphorylation.
22. In Krebs cycle isocitric acid is converted to -ketoglutaric acid. The farmer is 6
carbon compound and the latter is 5 carbon compound. How does it take place?
23. Is it possible to shorten the time of crop maturity? Support your answer.
24. What is bio-war?
6
Section C
4 x 5 = 20
Note : 1. Answer any 4 questions.
2. Answer to 25
th
question is compulsory and this question should not be left as
option.
3. Draw diagrams wherever necessary.
4. Each question carries 5 marks.
25. State the importance of herbarium.
26. What is meristem? Explain different types of meristems.
27. Describe the structure of tRNA.
28. Explain the steps involved in gene transfer in plants.
29. Bring out the physiological effects of auxin.
30. Explain cyclic photophosphorylation.
31. Write the benefits of bio-fertilizers.
Section D
2 x 10 = 20
Note : 1. Answer any 2 questions.
2. Draw diagrams wherever necessary.
3. Each question carries 10 marks.
32. Describe Hibiscus rosa-sinensis in technical terms.
33. a. Give an account on epidermal tissue system in plants. (5 Marks)
b. Bring out anatomical differences between dicot and monoct stems. (5 Marks)
34. Explain as to how protoplasmic fusion can bring about somatic hybridization in
plants?
35. What is glycolysis? Explain the steps involved in it.
5
XII STD
BIO - ZOOLOGY
Max: 75 Marks
Time : 1 hours
PART - A
Multiple Choice : Choose the correct answer
Note : 1. Each question carries 1 mark
2. Answer all questions 16 x 1 = 16
1. According to ICMR, the daily requirement of protein for an average Indian is
a. 100 g / day
b. 100 g / kg body wt
c. 1 g / kg body wt. / day
d. 1 g / day
2. Type II diabetes is due to
a. non secretion of insulin
b. insulin resistance
c. poor eating
d. anaemia
3. Myasthenia gravis is a / an
a. vitamin deficiency disease
b. infectious disease
c. kidney disorder
d. autoimmune disease
4. Stones formed in the urinary bladder can be disintegrated by a treatment called
a. Lithotripsy
b. ECG
c. EEG
d. CT scanning
5. The causative organism for cholera is
a. Yersinia pestis
b. Vibrio cholera
c. Plasmodium vivax
d. Ascaris lumbricoides
6. Identify the Protozoan disease
a. African sleeping sickness
b. Cholera
c. Taeniasis
d. Measles
7. HIV infection causes
a. anaemia
b. diarrhoea
c. immuno depression
d. stroke
6
8. How will you name a graft if an organ is transplanted from a cat to a dog?
a. Isograft
b. Autograft
c. Xenograft
d. Allograft
9. The term superbugs refers to
a. Arthropods
b. Insects
c. Beetles
d. Genetically engineered bacteria
10. Protein data banks are storehouses for
a. storage of various types of proteins
b. information related to three dimensional structure of proteins
c. cryopreservation of proteins
d. base pairing sequences
11. 95% of all conventional energy is produced from
a. fossil fuels
b. sun light
c. nuclear energy sources
d. water power
12. Loss of freshwater sources due to salt water intrusion may be due to
a. global warming
b. sea level increase
c. construction of dams
d. over use of ground frestwater resources
13. Milk fever in cows is normally due to
a. inability to assimilate calcium from the feed
b. starvation
c. over feeding
d. parasitic infestation
14. What is the scientific name for the common Viral meen (uh )
a. Channa striatus
b. Oreochromis mossambicus
c. Chanos chanos
d. Catla catla
15. The blood cell count is made by using
a. Glucometer
b. Sphygmomanometer
c. Haemoglobinometer
d. Haemocytometer
16. Closely related species living together in one common locality and maintaining
their species identity are termed as
a. Sympatric species
b. Allopatric species
c. Sibling species
d. Endangered species
7
PART - B
Note : 1. Each question carries 2 marks
2. Answer any eight 8 x 3 = 24
17. What is the role of water in our body?
18. Mention the two surgical contraception methods adopted for birth control.
19. How did Joseph Lister made the surgical treatments safer?
20. Define cell mediated immunity (CMI).
21. What could be the application of stem cell technique and cloning of cells in the future?
22. What are the clinical manifestations of the disease, Thalassemia.
23. Mention the languages that help in bioinformatics.
24. What is the application of demography?
25. What are Bio-medical wastes? How are they disposed off.
26. Suggest a situation in which a doctor might advice a CT scan.
27. What are the uses of Sphygmomanometer?
28. What are allopatric species.
PART - C
Note : 1. Answer any 3 questions
2. Answer to question 31 is compulsory.
3. Each question carries 5 marks. 3 X 5 = 15
29. Explain the role of Sodium - Potassium exchange pump in nervous conduction.
30. It may rather be difficult to get infected - Discuss the statement on the basis of barriers
providing innate immunity.
31. Briefly provide the life cycle of Schistosomes haematobium.
32. Describe how our knowledge of Embryology and Genetics are applied in the cloning technique.
33. What is Hardy - Weinberg law? Discuss its importance in population genetics.
Part - D
Note : 1. Answer any 2 questions
2. Each question carries 10 marks. 2 X 10 = 20
34. Enumerate the process of digestion of food in the gastro-intestinal tract.
35. Describe the functioning of eye as a visual receptor. Add a note on eye care.
36. Global warming is the direct result of Green house effect. Discuss the statement. What
related problems do we foresee?
37. Write an essay on cattle wealth of India.
4
TAMILNADU BOARD OF HIGHER SECONDARY EDUCATION
MODEL QUESTION PAPER
HIGHER SECONDARY SCHOOL CERTIFICATE (STD. XII)
EXAMINATION
MARCH - 2006
ENGLISH PAPER I
(Reader and Linguistic Competencies)
Time : Three Hours Maximum Marks : 100
In your answer-book, use the Arabic numerals (1 to 69) of the question you answer.
Section - A (Vocabulary - Lexical Competencies) (30 Marks)
I. A. Choose the most accurate of the four given contexts which equates with that of the
underlined lexical item in each of the following sentences : 5 x 1 = 5
1. Mahatma Gandhi was a ceaseless crusader of women's equality,
a. His belief is not based on reason.
b. Mandela fought for the cause of South African Liberty with determination.
c. She told that it was not sufficient,
d. The disease spreads quickly.
2. The sun plays truant for most of the day.
a. In summer the days are mostly warm.
b. The worker often violates the rules of the factory.
c. Truth wins all the time.
d. The children who kept themselves away from school without permission were
punished.
3. The good is oft interred with their bones.
a. We cleaned our house last week.
b. The treasure was found buried in our garden.
c. Rekha fixed a chiming clock on the wall.
d. Garbage should be dumped in the compose pit.
4. "I am no orator as Brutus is" is used with an accent of faint derision.
a. The speaker was happy to address the audience.
b. He took a strong decision to join Engineering course.
5
c. The manager s order made a mockery of the agreement.
d. The shopkeeper was a kind person.
5. For over five hours the pilot sailed serenely through the lightening sky.
a. We should complete our work quickly
b. The birds chirp cheerfully during spring.
c. Iqbal faced the different situation calmly.
d. Rachel served the company faithfully for a decade.
B. Choose the most accurate of the four given words Opposite to the usage word :
(5 x 1 = 5 Marks)
6. Euphony is one of the most attractive qualities of words.
a) Cacophony
b) Harmony
c) Melody
d) Simplicity
7. The teacher pretended to be indifferent.
a) interested
b) attractive
c) unmindful
d) attentive
8. A mist is formed of infinitesimal particles.
a) Sticky
b) ordinary
c) invisible
d) huge.
9. "Frailty thy name is woman."
a) sound body.
b) sturdy
c) weakness
d) Fatty
10. The rabbit was eventually caught.
a) incidentally
b) initially
c) finally
d) spectacularly
6
C. Answer any TEN of the following : (10 x 2 = 20 Marks)
11. Write your own sentences using the plural forms of 'index' or 'matrix'.
12. Use the idiom 'to give a piece of mind' in a sentence of your own.
13. Expand the abbreviation CPU and frame a sentence with the expanded form.
14. We _________ different types of __________ phones in our shop. (Fill in the blanks
with sell; cell)
15. Form a word by blending the words 'education' and ' entertainment' and use the blended
word in your own sentence.
16. Syllabify any two words, 'serenely', 'forceps', 'efficacy', 'crusader'.
17. Write a sentence using the word 'like' as a verb and as an adjective.
18. Write a sentence of your own using the American English word for 'biscuit'.
19. Use the compound word 'long - forgotten' in your own sentence.
20. Write a sentence using a word with the prefix 'un or the suffix ' - able'.
21. From Compound words: (a) Noun + Verb (b) Noun + Adjective
22. Write sentences using the phrasal verbs 'call on' and 'call off.
23. Write sentences using the clipped words from 'microphone' and 'demonstration'.
Section - B (Grammatical Competencies) (20 Marks)
II. A. Do as directed: (10 x 1 = 10 Marks)
24. Lawmakers ____________ not be law - breakers. (Use a modal verb)
25. Water ___________(boil) at 100 degree centigrade. (Use the given verb in suitable
form)
26. If you work hard you ___________ (pass) in the examination. (Use the correct tense of
the verb)
27. Show me the book ___________ you bought yesterday. (Use a relative pronoun)
28. Shakespeare, ___________ lived in the 16
th
century is the greatest dramatist. (Use a
relative pronoun)
29. They continued the match __________ the rain. (Use a phrase / preposition)
30. I__________ (give) them money if I had more (Use the given verb in suitable form)
31. Frame a sentence of the pattern SVO.
32. "Water is first heated in a test tube." This is an example of ___________ passive voice.
(Write the kind of passive voice)
33. ___________ I reached in time, I was not permitted. (Use a suitable link word)
7
B. Transform the following sentences as instructed: (5 x 2 = 10 Marks)
34. Report the dialogue:
Woman : Excuse me. Can you please direct me to the Canara Bank?
Man : Why not ? Turn right and go straight. It's right behind the police station.
Woman : Thank you.
35. If an angel were to tell me such a thing of her I would not believe it. (Begin with 'Were').
36. As there was heavy rain, the match was delayed. (Rewrite as a compound sentence.)
37. Malar had only one pen. She helped Manian. (Combine the sentences using 'Though')
38. I forgot my birthday. My teacher greeted me on that day. (Combine the sentences into a
simple sentence)
Section - C (Reading Competencies) (15 Marks)
III. A. Identify each sentence with the field in the list given below, by understanding the
word or words serving as the clue: (5 x 1 = 5 Marks)
39. Sangeetha stumbled upon a chance to practise running a race.
40. Robots are steadily moving from fiction to fact.
41. The Board has recommended a dividend of 75 per cent.
42. An Indian woman was honoured for producing high yielding crops.
43. "Who am I, a mere Prime Minister before the Queen of Songs?"
(Commerce, Music, Sport, Social service, Science)
B. Read the following passage and answer in your own words the questions given below:
(5 x 2 = 10 Marks)
It is not the pride or incivility on either side that keeps us remote from each other. It is simply
our London way. People are so plentiful that they lose their identity... In London men are as
lonely as oysters. Each living in his own shell. We go out in the country to find neighbours. If
the man next door took a cottage a mile away from me in the country, I should probably
know all about him, his affairs, his family, his calling and his habits inside a week. This is not
always so idyllic as it seems. Village life can be poisoned by neighbours until the victim
pines for the solitude of a London street, where neighbours are so plentiful that you are no
more conscious of their individual existence than if they were black berries on a hedge row.
Questions :
44. What keeps people in London remote from each other?
45. How are men described? Why?
46. Why do we seek country life?
47. What is the disadvantage of village life?
48. What can you say in this context about our Interaction with our neighbours?
8
Section-D (Writing Competencies) (Prose) (15 Marks)
IV.A. Answer any One of the following questions in a paragraph of about 100 words:
(1 x 5 = 5 Marks)
49. How do you relate ' Ahimsa' and ' Satyagraha' to women?
50. What are essentials for good public speaking?
51. State Gunga Ram's regard for snakes.
B. Write an essay in about a page of 250 words on any One of the following:
(1 x 10 = 10 Marks)
52. Hiroshima - the victim atomisation.
53. The Magic of Words.
54. Trekking to the Land of Snow.
Section - E (Literary Competencies) (Poetry) (20 Marks)
V. A. Read the following five sets of poetic lines and answer the questions given below
each of them: (6 x 1 = 6 Marks)
(i) "We claim to dwell, in quiet and seclusion,
Beneath the household roof."
55. Where do women claim to dwell?
(ii) "You cannot rob us the right we cherish."
56. Who do you think this line is addressed to?
(iii) "Markd how to explore the vacant vast surrounding."
57. Who tried to explore?
(iv) "And voices in me said: If you were a man
you would take a stick and break him now,
And finish him off."
58. Why did the voice say so?
(v) "Yes; quaint and curious war is!"
59. Who is the speaker?
60. Why is the war quaint and curious?
B. Read the following three sets of lines and answer the questions given below each set
of lines: 3 x 1 = 3 Marks
(i) "O winged seed! You crossed the furrowed seas
To nestle in the warm and silent earth."
9
61. Mention the figure of speech used in these lines,
ii) "Life is real! Life is earnest!
And grave is not the goal:"
62. Write out the words in alliteration in each of the above two lines,
(iii) Tell me not in mournful numbers,
Life is but an empty dream! -
For the soul is dead that slumbers,
And things are not what they seem.
63. Mention the rhyme scheme of these lines?
C. Explain any two of the following sets of lines with reference to the context:
2 x 3 = 6 Marks
64. "Yes; quaint and curious war is
65. "I thought how paltry, how vulgar, what a mean act!
I despised myself and the voices of my accursed human education."
66. "As humble plants by country hedgerows growing
That treasure up the rain,
And yield in odours, ere the day's declining,
The gift again;"
D. Write a paragraph on ONE of the following: 1 x 5 = 5 Marks
67. In his poem, "The Psalm of Life", how does H.W. Longfellow advise us not to judge life
by temporary standards?
68. How does the poet Louisa define "Women's Rights"?
69. What does the poet convey to the human beings in his poem 'Snake?'
13
TAMILNADU BOARD OF HIGHER SECONDARY EDUCATION
MODEL QUESTION PAPER
HIGHER SECONDARY SCHOOL CERTIFICATE (STD. XII)
EXAMINATION, MARCH - 2006
ENGLISH PAPER - II
(Supplementary Reader and Communicative Competencies)
Time : Three Hours Maximum Marks : 80
In your answer-book, use the Arabic numerals (1 to 39) of the questions you answer.
Section - A Supplementary Reader - (25 Marks)
I. A. Write a paragraph by re-arranging the following correct sequence. The first and
the last sentences are already in order. (5 x 1 = 5)
- Sue from Maile and Johnsy from California were budding artists and friends.
- Johnsy was also affected by pneumonia.
- Sue became very sad about the fate of her friend.
- As they were poor, the two artists stayed in Greenwich Village.
- The month of November was very cold and many in the village were affected by
the deadly disease called pneumonia.
- She took her friend to a doctor.
B. Complete the following choosing the correct answer from the options given : (5 x 1=5)
2. The Selfish Giant longed for________.
a) Spring b) Hail c) North Wind d) the little child
3. The camel did not work for ________.
a) two days b) three days c) one week d) four days
4. The value highlighted in the story 'Two friends' is ________.
a) patriotism b) honesty c) friendship d) humanism
5. Framton and the other two persons were engulfed in________.
a) fire b) flood c) fog d) flame
6. Disappointment in not winning the prize made Ivan and Masha ________ each other.
a) hate b) love c) fight d) more sympathetic to
14
C. Read the following passage and answer the questions given below: 5 x 1 = 5
One morning the giant was lying awake in bed when he heard some lovely music. It
sounded so sweet to his ears that he thought it must be the king's musicians passing by. It was
only a little linnet singing outside the window, but it was so long since he had heard a bird
sing in his garden that it seemed to him to be the most melodious music in the world. Then
the Hail stopped dancing over his head, and the North Wind ceased roaring, and a delicious
perfume came to him through the open casement. "I believe the Spring has come at last," said
the Giant, and he jumped out of bed and looked out.
Questions
7. Where was the giant lying?
8. What did the giant hear?
9. What is the name of the bird that was singing the song?
10. From where did the bird sing?
11. Why did the song sound to be "the most melodious song" to the giant?
D. 12. Write an essay by developing the following hints: 10 marks
Refugees pouring in Beijing - cold welcome by the city dwellers - caused by native workers -
the new horde of refugees - not beggarly - each carrying baskets slung upon a pole - an old
man - the fate of his son and daughter-in-law - a passerby taking pity giving money - the
reason for starvation - keeping the silver coin for buying seeds.
OR
Mr. Nuttle came to visit Mrs. Sappleton - met Vera - narrated tragedy - three years ago -
Mrs. Sappleton's husband and two young brothers went for shooting - didn't return - window
wide open - Mrs. Sappleton entered - soon the three arrived with the spaniel - Framton Nuttel
rushed out - Vera said - he was once hunted by a pack of dogs - her specialty - romance at
short notice.
Section - B Learning Competency (Study Skills) (15 Marks)
II. A. Answer the following : 5 x 2 = 10
13. What does the reference section in a modern library contain?
14. Mention a complete e-mail ID of any service organisation.
15. Explain, not merely expand, OPAC.
16. What is Clich ? Give one example.
17. Arrange the two authors John Keats and Jonathan Swift in the library catalogue.
B. Look at the following, spot the errors and correct them: 5 x 1 = 5
18. Sitting near the window and he saw the crowd.
19. Though he was rich but he was happy.
20. If he had come to the party I would hand over the parcel to him.
21. He joined an European University last year.
22. One of the boy looks happy
15
SECTION C : Occupational Competency (Job Skills) (15 Marks)
23. Write the summary of the following passage in about 100 words: (5 Marks)
All Fools Day or April Fools Day is a day on which people have a lot of fun pulling pranks
on others. We do not know exactly how April Fools Day began. Now it lives on as a day of
fun and practical jokes. The sun starts its yearly journey towards the north from the Equator
on 21 March. A long time ago people celebrated that day as the beginning of the New Year.
In fact many cultures around the world still celebrate New Year around that time. Earlier,
Europe too celebrated the New Year around 21 March till Pope Gregory changed the calendar
in 1582. After that, the beginning of the New Year was celebrated on 1 January. People
usually gave each other gifts for the New Year. When the date was changed people gave
mock gifts to each other on 1 April. Some people think that April Fools Day began in France
and the custom made its way to other countries.
24. Respond to the following advertisement considering yourself fulfilling the conditions
specified : (10 Marks)
Applications are invited from eligible candidates to join our 3 months certificate
course in Computer programming. Minimum educational qualifications: A degree
with Mathematics as a subject. Fresh batch commences on 6
th
June, 2005.
Placement services for the first ten rank holders. For details write to:
Geo Software Company,
12th Avenue, Gandhi Nagar,
Salem - 636 004.
Do not fail to attach a Demand Draft for Rs. 50/-
SECTION D : Strategic Competency (Life Skills) (5 Marks)
25. Fill in the blanks with suitable non-lexical fillers. (2 x 1 = 2)
Police : Did you hear anything?
Man : ___________ I think I did hear a gun shot.
Police : Why didn't you tell the police?
Man : I was afraid ___________That I would be arrested and questioned.
26. A man approaches you to direct him to a nearby bank. Here you find the road
map. Write three instructions by way of helping him. (3 x 1 = 3)
Raja Stores
Main Road
School
You are here
State Bank
Bus Stop
16
SECTION E : Creative Competency (Artistic / Literary Skills ) (10 Marks)
V. A. Match the Proverbs with their meanings: 5 x 1 = 5
Proverb Meaning
27. Make hay while the sun shines a) Prefer to live in groups
28. Better late than never b) Try to read as much as possible
29. No man is an island c) Make use of the opportunity
30. Brevity is the soul of wit d) Even if delayed attend the meeting
31. Reading makes a perfect man e) Be short in speech and writing
B. Match the slogans with the suitable products given below: 5 x 1 = 5
Product Slogan
32. Torchlight a) Make fire in a rare way
33. Ball-point pen b) Clean with a glee
34. Tooth Paste c) The sunbeam in your hand
35. Box of matches d) Comfortable sole in a cosy hole.
36. Shoes e) Flawless writing flows from this pen
Section - F : Extensive Reading (10 Marks)
VI. Write a general essay of about 200 words on any ONE of the following: 1 x 10 = 10
37. Rain water Harvesting.
38. Science - a boon or a curse.
39. If I were an angel.
17
BLUE PRINT
SUBJECT : ENGLISH CLASS : XII
UNIT / PAPER : I MAXIMUM MARKS 100 TIME : 3 HOURS
Knowledge (Vocabulary, Writing
Reading, Study Skills)
Comprehension (Reading, Study
Skills, Occupational Competency &
Writing)
Expression (Creative, Strategic
Competency and Writing)
S.No.
OBJECTIVES
Form of Question
Units / Sub Units
E/LA SA VSA O ELA SA VSA O E/LA SA VSA O
TOTAL
1.
Section A 10(10) 10(10) 10(10) 30 (20)
2. Section B 8 (5) 12(15) 20(15)
3. Section C (i)
(ii)
2 (5)
3 (5)
3 (5)
4 (5) 3 (5)
5 (5)
10 (5)
4. Section D (i)
(ii)
2 (1)
5 (1)
1 (1)
2 (1)
2 (1)
3 (1)
5 (1)
10 (1)
5. Section E (i)
(ii)
(iii) 3 (1)
3 (2)
3 (9)
1 (1)
1 (2)
3 (9)
1 (1)
2 (2)
3 (9) 9 (9)
6 (2)
5 (1)
TOTAL 10 3 26 10 4 1 10 - 6 2 28 - 100 (59)
Summary No. of Questions Marks Scheme of Options Sec. A - NIL
Essay / LA 3 20 Sec. B (VSA) 10/13
SA 2 6 Sec. C NIL
VSA 44 64 Sec. D (LA) 2/6
O 10 10 Sec. E (SA) 2/3
TOTAL 59/69 100 (LA) 1/3
Note : Figures within brackets indicate the number of questions and figures outside the bracket indicate marks.
18
Read or Recorded
BLUE PRINT
SUBJECT : ENGLISH CLASS : XII
UNIT / PAPER : II MAXIMUM MARKS 80 TIME : 3 HOURS
Knowledge (Vocabulary, Writing
Reading, Study Skills)
Comprehension (Reading, Study
Skills, Occupational Competency &
Writing)
Expression (Creative, Strategic
Competency and Writing)
S.No.
OBJECTIVES
Form of Question
Units / Sub Units
E/LA SA VSA O ELA SA VSA O E/LA SA VSA O
TOTAL
1.
Section A Qn. No. 1 12 7(1)
3(5) 5(1)
2(5)
2(5)
3(1)
3(5) 25
2. Section B 13 22 6(10) 4(10) 5(10) 15
3. Section C 23 24 6(2) 4(2) 5(2) 15
4. Section D 25 26 2 (1) 3 (1) 5
5. Section E 27 - 36 4 (10) 6 (10) 10
6. Section F 37 39 5 (1) 2 (1) 3 (1) 10
TOTAL 18 - 10 3 6 - 19 2 11 - 11 - 80
INTERNAL ASSESSMENT (20 MARKS)
(TO BE PROPERLY DOCUMENTED IN THE SCHOOL)
Test No. Listening Speaking Reading Total Average
1 10 (5 + 5) 5 5 20
2 5 10 (5+5) 5 20
3 5 5 10 (5+5) 20
Listening: Group Discussion Speech Dialogue Passage Airport / Railway Station
announcements
Speaking Role play Dialogue Address of Welcome Vote of thanks Inaugural address Farewell speech
Reading Any passage Play Poem
Total of 1 + 2 + 3
=
3
19
Note : Figures within brackets indicate the number of questions and figures outside the brackets indicate marks.
Summary
No. of
Questions
Marks Scheme of Options
1. Supplementary Reader : E 1 out of 2
2. Extensive Reading : E 1 out of 3
Long Answer (LA)
of Essay (E)
4 35
Scheme of Sections:
Sec. A Supplementary Reader
Short Answers (SA) - - Sec. B Learning Competencies (Study Skills)
Very Short Answers
(VSA)
28 40
Sec. C
Occupational Competency (Job Skills)
Objective Type 5 5 Sec. D Strategic Competency (Life Skills)
TOTAL 37 80 Sec. E Creative Competency (Artistic / Literary Skills)
Sec. F Extensive Reading
1
Co.o _;=.+ _= C.+ _
cc++c+c _.a Cc=,a . +) cc++c+c
Language - Part I - Tamil (Blue Print) 2005 - 2006
o +c C+a,_ _oo+=
++o =
.C.= i..
I. _gcc+ . _g cc+o+c C++o+... +c+_o_ (Open Choice) c..
c_+ C+ao Cc=. 4 x 2 = 8
II. C.gcc+ . c+_. C+.+ _o+c. go_c. C+.).o+ C+a,c _+a
._+oog . g cc+o+c C++o+... (Open choice)
_c_o_ c.. c_+ C+ao Cc=. 3 x 4 = 12
III. C.gcc+ . +oo+a++c. go)++. .+.o+c. c_.+.. .+.o+c _+a
._+oog . g cc+o+c C++o+... (Open choice)
_c_o_ c.. c_+ C+ao Cc=. 3 x 4 = 12
IV. Ccc+ . go_c ._ao cg. C+.).o+ C+a,c ._ao cg.
+oo+a++c g go)++. .+.o+c ._+oog cg
_+ _cg cc+o+c C++ (Open Choice) c_o_ c..
c_+ C+ao Cc=. 1 x 8 = 8
V. C+a,c ._ao _.co c.cCa_ _;= _,+.oo C++ +) cc++oo
C++o+.C.gco C.+o z.. zi cc _;= cc+o+c C++.
c_o_ c.. c_+ C+ao Cc=. 4 x 1 = 4
VI. c..+. . i. go_c ++o++. c ._+oog g C+a,c .+c.+
4 + 2 = 6
z. go_oog . C+.o+ i. , i C++ _;=
_..+o+c 2 + 2 = 4
VII. z:. tg.coo+=. _g C+++c C++ _;=._o_ c.. C+.+ Cc=.
z x 2 = 4
z. _oo+=o _., . C+.). C+.+ _g C+++c C++. C.ca+ac
t)a.._o_o C++,.o ++., _c_o_ c.. C+.+ Cc=.
x 2 = 6
z. ,=)++ . _g C+++c C++ _;=._o_ c.. C+.+ Cc=.
2 x 2 = 4
z. C.+gc . .=. . C++ c_o_ c.. C+.+ Cc=.1 x 4 = 4
z-. _= . C+a,c cg. _=ac C.a)+c _;= C++ C_
c_o_ c.. C+.+ Cc=. 1 x 4 = 4
VIII. C.+g+ . _o _+)a). C++o C.+gc. .= C.+gc +g.C.+gc
t).C.+gc C.+g+ cc+c++ +c_ . C++o
C+.+ Cc=. 4 x 1 = 4
IX.t)a c...a
C)Co . i C++o+ Cc=. coo+ cc+o+_o_ c.. c_ Cc=.
16 x 1 = 16
X. C++,.. _.++.o C+++o+o ;.,+. go_oog . C+.+
Cc=. 2 + 2 = 4
2
Co.o _;=.+ _=
C.+ _
+) cc++c
._ I - _ o+c
C+a,_ _oo+=
. c= .
Language - Part I - Tamil Paper I
++.o . = .C.=. i..
_., .i. c..+c Coc++ _.c.. _occc++ C++ ..a_ _.o
Cc=.
z. cc+ VI o++c c.. . C+a,c c,co _.o Cc=.
I. cccg cc+o+_c c.cCa_ +c+_o_ g c)+oo c.. c_+.
4 x 2 = 8
i. '_c,.. ;cc c +.oCa+.+; co+ g_Ccc' _c+= _.co _.++.
C.+g.o+ +.+.
z. ++ cg c. a+go+o.o cco _c +g+
. c;+ cc) _aa _o+c a+.c
:. _+ coo_+.
. +gc)+_o_ ..+ _++ c,o+ C;oo+ c cco +coC++ +g++)
. 'c;+c C+_)' cc _._o+....c) a+) ++;= a+
II. cccg cc+o+_c c.cCa_ _c_o_. . c)+oo c.. c_+.
3 x 4 = 12
. 'cC c _,c+_o.+' cco +.) ca +gcc a. coo_+.
-. .oc.a+ ++ C+o_ .occ. C+_ c.; +.+ac. o+=.=a+)
c_ coo_+.
. c C+a+; .c.c c.o+++ cc.. cc_c) ccc+g coo+,co+)
i.. C++oa+ C+_ _+_++,.;+c a+.c
ii. C.._.a . g+g _cc Cco.c ccc+g Cc=,o C++=.+c
III. cccg cc+o+_c c.cCa_ _c_o_. . c)+oo c.. c_+.
3 x 4 = 12
iz. _;++;++ C++_cc co. c+c. ;+. C++,. _.. _o +....c a+.c
i. .oc C+. C+_ _ C+_+o++o _;_g.;) +,coc a+.c
i:. +c,+++.oao _go+ Cc=,a _o+o++. .+;++c _.ccc a+.c
i. +o+c+o cg .ac+c a+.c cco +c_) +;+ +,co+)
i. ac+) . .=.a +co .c. C.+g.c) _..a o+cc++ tg. ,oc)
+gcc a+.c
3
IV. cccg cc+o+_c C_ c_o_ _g. c)+oo c.. c_+.
1 x 8 = 8
i. 'C.+.,...' cc_ _++; Cco.. _c +g+.o C+_ c_+.
i-. g=+.o. C.+o +==+ _.= ++ t.;c., C++co.co +=.C.+_
+_ _,., c.;+.
i. _.oao +.o_ c+o.c. +;+.+; +g _.;+.o C+_ c_+.
V. cccg C+a,c _,+oc _o C++o+...co cc+o+_o_ c.. c_+.
4 x 1 = 4
z.. a+g o.o +Cc +ccc
+c C.+a.cc a+Cccc C+aC++
_. _o '+ccc' cco _.c.....cc a+cc
_. _. a+). a+). +a +g
_. _o+. C+a,.o. .+,ac) a+)
=. _.._ c_oo _. C.gco
_oo
zi. _o+_= C++.o ,oC+c _cc_ _=++cc+.oo
+o+_C= ,.;a+a +==c)o +.o +=C.c
_. _.co +ac) a+)
_. a+). +c+)
_. '= C++.o' cco _.c....co c
=. '_=++cc+c' cco _.c.....cc a+)
VI. zz. 'cC.g' ccg C+.+_ +.;++a=+ C+a,.o _,c_+o c_ _c .+
c.+.a, c_+ 4 + 2 = 6
z.'c.c ..' cc C+.+_ _.o, 'C+_o' cc ,, _.o, _,c_+o
c_+ 2 + 2 = 4
VII. z:.c.cCa_ _;= C+++_o_ tg.coo+= g+. 2 x 2 = 4
_. ,.cC+ _. _++a _. +_cg.
=. +c+) t. Cc=C.c . _.+a
z. _o C++,.. C+.)+_c _c_o_ _oo+=o _., g+. 3 x 2 = 6
_. cc, c+_c+ _. c+ +++)
_. _C+)_ =. cc +++o,
t. C++o_c C.+cc . _+o+o tgoC++
4
z. c.cCa_ _;= C+++_o_. ,=)++ c g+. 2 x 2 = 4
_. +acc _. .+_. _. +cc+c
=. .oCccg t. ..= . cc
z. ++cg coo_+. 1 x 4 = 4
C.+g=C+_o ++_+ . _oo o.o .=
z-. _c., oc. cgC+;+o cc.,c
cc. .c+). C.+..
_+C+a,oo _. _=.a+ +., coo_+.
_oo
C++C.+g. cccg.o a= _oo .o+=.a coo+ co++. g+.
1 x 4 = 4
VIII. C.+g+. 4 x 1 = 4
_o _+)a)
29. _ao .+. _.o ;_+c
.. __+c +)., +;+
i. .+ .+;a+)
z. .+oc +;+.+;
.+;++c
IX. t)a c...a C)C c_+. 16 x 1 = 16
. _;+ _c_+ac .+... .occ _______
_. +cc _. g+o _. g+c
:. _++_g. .+o+oc _,c.;a. _______
_. : _, o - _, c.; _. _, o iz _, c.;
_. i _, o i _, c.;
. _gC+.+o_o +.c c+_ .+,ac) _______
_. C.gCcc+) _. c;gc+) _. +co)
. go_c _. .+oo tco _++;++oc c==o.+ ________
_. . _. - _. z
. . 'cc_c.c. C.+ C.C ,+_ .ca+C' ccg .+,ac) ________
_. .+;++c _. +c= _. .+;a+)
-. +o..++; _.c c) cc. _______ c.+.a+ ++).
_. +. .+.o _. _.+..+.o _. +o..+.o
5
. _;++a=o '+;c' cc_ C.a;+o c_++.C.g.cc _______
_. __c _. _;+c=c _. _oo_cc
:.. c;+cc) C+_ _+;+ ________
_. +;+;+ _. C.;+;+ _. _g. _+;+
:i. '+c;+.++c' ccg ,+._. C.c) _______
_. +.) _. ..o +) _. _o+C++c,+c
:z. 'cca +c' cc_ C.a;+o _._o+....c) _______
_. cc.o. C.g+c ga+++) _. ..o +)
_. _;_g.;)
:. _o C+ca o +o.+ _________
_. .;o +o.+ _. o +o.+ _. +++o +o.+
::. o+. .c_ _. .+c.+ ________
_. +..+ _. _+)a..+ _. c_+..+
:. .+;++c Ccoa.. __c C.a) ________
_. Cc ._ _. _ao _. Cco
:. 'o_ C+_o +c. +.,_ t._o' cc. .+,ac) _______
_. .+;a+) _. .+;++c _. c+=++c
:. _ co)++ .ac .)+.c. C. tc.o +c_) +;+cc _o _______
_. Cc ._ _. .+ _. +cg +==+,
:-. .+c g.+oo +;) Cc+; ________ a++ _. C.gco.
_. o+ g. _. _+ g. _. .cc;=.+ g.
X. C++,.. _.++.o ;.,+. 2 + 2 = 4
:. C++ccc ________ C+a_ _c) C+a
cgc gcoo ________
.. C++o_o _______ coa. _)ac+
C++ooa ______ C+ao.
6
+) cc++c
_ _;=.+ +c
t.;.. .=. .+. C+a,c a .+;+..o
_+o+ .....+o C+_ c
++o . = .C.= . -.
I. t.;.. . i o : .+.++oo .+._ c++ g C.g
cc+o+c C++o+.C.g _c_o_ c.. c_+
C+ao Cc=. (3 x 4 = 12)
II. t.;.. . o - .+.++oo .+._ c++ g C.g
cc+o+c C++o+.C.g _c_o_ c.. c_+
C+ao Cc=. (3 x 4 = 12)
III. t.;.. . i o : .+.++oo C.gcc+o_ z cc+o+c
C) C+aa.C. .+.. o+. c .+.++oog
cg. o - .+.++oo C.gcc+o_ z
cc+o+c C) C+aa.C. .+.. o+. c
.+.++oog cg++ _g C cc+o+c
C++o+.C.g c_o_ c.. c_+ C+ao
Cc=. (1 x 6 = 6)
IV. .=..+. . _;= cc+o+_o_ _;=,;= .o+++oo
c.. c_+ C+ao Cc=. (2 x 10 = 20)
i. +.+ +go+ _oo t.;a+.o +.+ c_o.
z. +. +) c+a _oo +..co +.
c_o.
+g +.+c i c.; g c)c++ o iz c.; C+g c)c++
C++= cCc+g c)c_ cc+ c.+o_ .
_;=,;=.++ C) C+a C++ _ _;=,o
cgo_ c.. c_+ C+ao Cc=. o
cc+o_ i C) C+a+o. _;=.+ cc+o_
iz C) C+aa. o cc+o_ iz C)
C+a+o. _;=.+ cc+o_ i C) C+aa.
V. C+a,c a .+;+..o . .+;a+). C++c+a+ cc.o. .+;++c. +o+o
_;+ o++ cc.o _+ac)+_c gc)
_aaC+a,.oo C++o Cc=. C+a,c
C++o. C.+gc. c.+. C+.c. ;=. +. _=
oa a++c +o _.++ _go Cc=.
_+)a) C.a.;o _.c.. C.+gc _+ i.
.C.=+c
7
VI. _+o+ . ._C+_. ;, C+.). tc.. .oc.+ c+o+a++c
cc _g _++o c+o+a++c C++. _c_o_
_+o+ c_+ C+ao Cc=. (2 x 3 = 6)
VII. .....+o . _cg ._C+_+c C++ c.c c+_o.+
+_++Ca+ _.= coo+. . c)+c c_+
C+ao Cc=. _oo _;= .o.,+c C++
c_o_ - _oo i. _,+oo. +=c)+oc
.....+.o co)o_ c.+ao +c. cg c_+
C+ao Cc=. +c. C++. .....++ _go+
Cc= cc.. co,go Cc=.
: .C.=+c
VIII. C+_c . i. C++o+ Cc=. coo+ cc+o+_o_ c..
c_ Cc=
i. .C.=+c
8
_;=.+ +oc _.=., C.+o C+..o c+oc _a
Testing of aural - oral skills
++o . i = .C.= z.
i. c_.co cCc+g +=c.c, / +=c.a, ccCa C.++ C+ao Cc=.
_+C++.co+++ gcgo_ g = o+.o o+ Cc=.
.C.=
_. C++o+.... .o., .. C.++ C+ao
_. c,.; _oo c;Cc,.; ++ C+ao
_. .o. ++. +.o C.+c _a.+. C.+gc+_.c C_ c.o _ t.;a++
C+ao.
=. Cc.o Cc=, cgo gc). C+a .o +o +o_)ao C+;+ C+o_C.+
.o_ C)+ ,++ ) _._+ C+oo c_ c++)o o+c.c C+.).++
+) t.;a+.o cg.
z. o. o. _ =. c ;. cgo+ c_o+c _a++ _. C.gco C+a,c+c _c
+c.+. .,o++ C+a. t++)...o +cc. .C.= c_+_o Cc=. _oo
+c_ _, _oco _. C+a,.o. C.+gc ,),+g .,o ++..+ C+a.
_;=C.+g C+++_o_. C.+gc C+.. .G C+ao Cc=. ++o g =
o
.C.=+c
_ _ao_. .+._oc C+a,c g t.;... ._+oo C++o+.C.gco
'C+_ c co) .a+' ._ao _.co C+a,c g t.;... .+.o.
.ac.o C++coo+.
9
Co.o _;=.+ _=
C.+ _
+) cc++c
._ I - _ _;=.+ +c
t.;.... .=. .+.. C+a,c a .+;+..o. _+o+.
.....+o. C+_c
. c=
Language - Part I - Tamil Paper II
++o . = .C.= . -.
_., . c..+c Coc++ _.c.. _occc++ C++ ..a_
_.o Cc=.
I. cccg cc+o+_c c.cCa_ _c_o_ cCc+c_ . c)+oc
++ c.. c_+.
3 x 4 = 12
i. +.+ _c +.cao,+o+++ g)a +;+a= ++)a+) +gcc a+.c
z. + cc_ .+o +;+. __.. . g. c. +. t.;..c a+.c
. +.,o =. ++o++ +_ cg C.g+C++.o ccg g. c. +. cg
t.;..c a+.c
:. +c.o_)a ooao,+o++o +.c t.;o_+. .ca+,). cc.o c_ g+.
. .__ +) C.)a a+.aCa _+c) cc..c _oc_+c+) ccc+g
coo+,co+)
II. cccg cc+o+_c c.cCa_ _c_o_ cCc+c_ . c)+oc
++ c.. c_+.
3 x 4 = 12
. 'c;. C.a;++ _oo+= C++oo..cc ++oc C.g.ac +gCa' cc
.+c+=) +.c coo_+.
. '_ac' cc C.aC; _;+.co _o_ 'C++'cc.... cc..c. .+c+=) ccc+g
coo+,co+)
-. tc.+.oo .+a+_ cCoCa gcc_c) a=.++o _c _.g...+
+.;+c ccc+g coo_++)
. cCc cc. . .c. t.;..c a+.c
i.. C++_) ++o+ +c+oc ..a. ,o..+.
III. cccg cc+o+_c C_ c_o_ _g. c)+oc ++ c.. c_+.
1 x 6 = 6
ii. '_ ta) c+ C+C+_' _.o.cc _ .)+ +.o_) t.;..cc.
C+_ c.;+.
iz. 'c c+_Cc C.)a' cc_ _,....ao .c. t.;o_ c)++oo +c a+
10
IV. cccg cc+o+c cCc+c_ _;= .o+++oc ++o c.. c_+.
2 x 10 = 20
i. '_a+' _oo '+...' cc_ +g+..ao +g.C.+g_ +.c, _c+o +go+
c.;+.
_oo
'.+oc== cc.o' _oo 'Cco' cc_ +.ao _.C.g C_ g +_++.a
+.++++ C+a+.
i:. 'cCc+g +oo+a' _oo '=' cc_ +g+.ao g c +c) +. +)
_ c+a C+a+.
_oo
c) cgca g +go+o_+ C+oo ,a+ ..Ca... _c+o cg caa++
g +_.c. ,.cC_+.
_oo
g gc_+o +..o c_ c c __..a _c C.C+). ....o+.
.+.. cgaC.+o +..ca++ g +. c_+.
V. i. cccg C+a,.o. .,=). _o _.co +g. a.c c.;.
_o _.co c.+. C+.c. _.a,. ;=. _=. ++ +.c. tc..
tgc+ +..c _+acgc ,..ac.+ +., c_+. 1 x 10 =10
c; c.+c Cc= +C+
ccCccc C+.o ,.+c C.C+
+;c C+cc+a =.o C+
+++ C.+ c_+.o C
_o o+.o +o+c tg
_,, +=...a c.,. .
; cg .,o gCa+
;=ao o+c c.. C.+aCa+
- M.
cc cgcccgc c.cCa_ _c_o_ . _+o+ g+. 3 x 2 = 6
i. Time and tide wait for none.
17. Familiarity breeds contempt.
18. Slow and steady wins the race.
19. By hard work Japan has become number one in industry.
20. Television is one of the modern wonders of electronics.
21. Education should develop and promote good values.
11
VII. zz. cccg ._C+_+_c c.c coo_ c.+ao. c+_o.+ +_co
_. . c)+oo c_+. 1 x 4 = 4
_. ++o.+o_ c __+ C.+c __+.
_. _o+.;o_ _o+.;. .+.+.
_. +.) coo++a_ _=C++o Cc=.
_oo
'c+cC+' _oo ';=+oc g.Ca _a.+' cc_ .o.co +. t
C++. .....++o +c. c. - _,+_o_o _.a+ i. _,+_o_ ++
c_+.
VIII. cccg cc+o+_o_ _...,o _+_o_c _.c.coc+g c..
c_+. 10 x 1 = 10
z. o)oC++, _gc o) = .;.cc.
c+o+a. c._.a g+
z:. . +c,+oo + gc C+a+c C.+ .co+...coc.
C.ca+c _.++oo cooc Ca+.o _.C._+
z. _.o. _._ _oo .c. .= C.+gc Ccg.+... t=) c.+ao
cc c+o+a++oo _.C_+
z. .a+C..,o C.=. c. ++.cc. .+. C+aa Cc=.
c C+_+ C+++.o o+ _ca _o c_+
z. Cc,a+++.,, Cc.o C.+. g .oo++
C+++.+a+c c_t+ C+++.o g c_+
z-. cc + ,;cc g+cc++_+ ++og c; Cc=.
cC+_+ C++ +o... o+ oo _o c_+
z. .o+ ++c+) cc. ,oc) ++.ca_ =C+.o ccC.
C.a)..+). (C.ca _.++o_co cooc Ca+.o o+ c_+)
.. +g, C+.,o_ _g++.ao +a +a.
(;, c_.c o+ c_+)
i. Cc caoo +.o .)C.+ _ +,+o _oc+c.
(c_. c._+.o g c_+)
z. +a. ccg _.cc) cc._o C++c.+ao o cc.
C.+gc.
(C.+g+c g _+.o _.C._+)
12
Co.o _;=.++=
._ I - _ _;=.+ +oc _.=.,
+) cc++c
Language - Part I Tamil Paper II
Testing of Aural - Oral Skills
++o . i = .C.= . z.
_., . i. cc+ I, II _+a _g cc+o+.o +=c/ +=ca)+_o_ ccCa
C+++ C++o+ Cc=. _ccc+o+c +=cgo_ +=c) Ccg..,go Cc=.
cCc+gcgo_ _+C++.co+++. . =o+c o+...o Cc=.
z. cc+ III, IV, V _+a _cg cc+o+.o _.ccgo_ C.+c+c++o C++
C) . Cc=. z. z. i. = o+.o . .ac.o C++coo
Cc=.
+) cc++c . cc+o+c I, II, III, IV, V o _=o_o C++o+. C.gco.o
++=+.
c..+c . o _=o_ tco C.+o a+)o C++c+.
cc+ I .C.=. II .C.=. III .C.=. IV .C.=. V : .C.=
_+C++.co_o +...c,o+ Cc=,a C.+c
I, II - cc+o+.o c_.cCoCa cCc+gcgo_ ccCa .
=o c o+ .G C+ao Cc=.
III, IV, V - cc+o+.o. C) c_Cc+) _.cc.;, ccCa _;+ C+a.
c.. +c+.oo C++. III, IV - cc+o+_o_)a .+.o, cc+. c..+.o,
ccCa C; g. . C) c_Cc+.; + +cc++ _go_+g
+c.. .,o ++.,/. C+aa....+ac oo++ C+a c..o_)a c=+.o
. c..+oo c_+ C+ao Cc=.
++o+= C)o_c _g.,. _.;a+= C)o_c _g.,
+=c)+.o+ C++.c C+ao Cc=. _C)+oc +;++) .C.=.= z.
.C.=_o_+ +) C+a ++o+=. _.;a+= _+a _g C)+o_ C+)o
C++c_o Cc=.
_g C)o_c _.;a+= C)o_.cc g . C++.c C+ao
Cc=.
..C. g C++.c+oc +;++).a _g. .C.=_o_o +=o+..
.C.= ..,a.o .o.a++)a). ..... C). _.=ago_ __.c
.co Cc=. _+C++.co_. .ac..... cc++c+.o, .G
C+aa.... c..+c+.o, .o.a++)a). ....o Cc=.
.o.a++)a) _.c. .+++.,.c .co Cc=.
c C)c+o)+_o_. _c)+c C) c_ .a .o.a++)a).
_++)a)+oc tc,.c _.ao g C).c .. c.. +c+.o.
.+++...c .C.= ..,a.o C). _.=ago_ __.,o Cc=.