..Par t - A : Mat hemat i c s..

SECTION I - Single Correct Choice Type

This section contains 8 multiple choice questions. Each question
has 4 choices (a), (b), (c) and (d) for its answer, out of which ONLY
ONE is correct.
1. The complex numbers 1 + i and 1 + 2i are both roots of the
equation x
5
6x
4
+ Ax
3
+ Bx
2
+ Cx + D = 0,
where A, B, C, D R. The value of D is
(a) 20 (b) 20
(c) 10 (d) 2
2. The set of values of x for which the identity
1 1 2
1
cos cos 3 3
2 2 3
x
x x

_
+ +

,
holds good, is
(a) [0, 1] (b)
1
]
1

2
1
, 0 (c)
1
]
1

1 ,
2
1
(d) {1,0,1}
3. Let
q
2008 r
dx 1 x
ln C
p
x x 1 x
_
+

+ + ,
, where p, q, r N and
need not be distinct, then the value of (p + q + r) equals
(a) 6024 (b) 6022 (c) 6021 (d) 6020
I I T-JEE MOCK TEST - 1
Spac e f or Rough Work
* GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS :
1. Section I : Q. No. 1 to 8, Q. No. 21 to 28 and Q. No. 41 to 48 are Single Correct Choice Type questions. For this section, 3 marks
will be awarded for correct answer and zero marks for no answer. In all other cases, 1 mark will be awarded.
2. Section II : Q. No. 9 to 12, Q. No. 29 to 32 and Q. No. 49 to 52 are Multiple Correct Choice Type questions. For this section, 4
marks will be awarded for correct answer and zero marks for no answer. In all other cases, 1 mark will be awarded.
3. Section III : Q. No. 13 & 14, Q. No. 33 & 34 and Q. No. 53 & 54 are Multiple Matrix-Match Type questions. Each question
contains statements given in two columns, which have to be matched. The statements in Column-I are labelled A, B, C and D,
while the statements in Column-II are labelled p, q, r, s and t. Any given statement in Column -I can have correct matching with
ONE OR MORE statement(s) in Column-II. 2 marks each will be awarded for darkening the correct bubble in each row. Hence
the maximum marks of each question is 8 marks. No negative mark will be awarded for an incorrectly bubbled answer.
4. Section IV : Q. No. 15 to 20, Q. No. 35 to 40 and Q. No. 55 to 60 are Comprehension Type questions. For this section, 4 marks
will be awarded for correct answer and zero marks for no answer. In all other cases, 1 mark will be awarded.
Ti me : 180 mi nut es M ax. M arks : 240
PAPER - 1
Spac e f or Rough Work
2 IIT-JEE Mock Test - 1
4.
x
1
x
2tan x
lim

,
equals e
L
then L is equal to
(a)
2

(b)
2

(c)
2

(d) 1
5. Let C
1
and C
2
are circles defined by x
2
+ y
2
20x + 64 = 0 and
x
2
+ y
2
+ 30x + 144 = 0. The length of the shortest line
segment PQ that is tangent to C
1
at P and to C
2
at Q is
(a) 15 (b) 18 (c) 20 (d) 24
6. The sum of all positive integral values of a, a [1, 500] for
which the equation [x]
3
+ x a = 0 has solution is (where [ ]
denote the greatest integer function)
(a) 462 (b) 512 (c) 784 (d) 812
7. Area enclosed by the graph of the function y = ln
2
x 1 lying
in the 4
th
quadrant is
(a)
2
e
(b)
4
e
(c)
1
2 e
e
_
+

,
(d)
1
4 e
e
_

,
8. Equation of the plane containing the lines
r (1,1, 0) t (1, 1, 2) +
r
, r (2, 0, 2) s ( 1,1, 0) +
r
is
(a) x + 3y + z = 4 (b) x + y 2 = 0
(c) 5x 3y 4z = 2 (d) None of these
SECTION II - Multiple Correct Choice Type
This section contains 4 multiple choice questions. Each question
has 4 choices (a), (b), (c) and (d) for its answer, out of which ONE
OR MORE is/are correct.
9. Let f (x) = x
3
+ px
2
+ qx + 6, where p, q R and f ' (x) < 0 in
largest possible interval
5
, 1
3
_


,
then (p + q) is greater
than
(a) 2 (b) 2 (c) 4 (d) 6
10. Choose the correct options
(a) The sum
1
2
1
2
are tan
n
r
r

_

,
equals
3
4

(b)
2
n
lim n sin (2 1 n 2n ) (n N)

+
equals
(c) Period of the function f (x) = sin
2
2x + cos
4
2x + 2, is
4

(d)
1
1/ 2 3/2
1
(1 x) (1 x) dx

equals
2

11. Choose the incorrect statement

(a) If a.b a.c b c (a 0)
r r
r r r r r
(b) If a b a c b c (a 0)
r r
r r r r r
(c) If a.b a.c and a b a c b c (a 0)
r r r
r r r r r r r r
(d) If
1 2 3
v , v , v
r r r
are non-coplanar vectors and
2 3
1
1 2 3
v v
k
v .(v v )

r r
r
r r r
;
3 1
2
1 2 3
v v
k
v .(v v )

r r
r
r r r
and
1 2
3
1 2 3
v v
k
v .(v v )

r r
r
r r r
then
1 2 3
1 2 3
1
k .(k k )
v .(v v )

r r r
r r r
12. Choose the correct options
(a) Locus of the feet of the perpendiculars drawn from the
foci on a variable tangent to the hyperbola
16y
2
9x
2
= 1 is x
2
+ y
2
= 1/16
(b) A line passing through the point (21, 30) and normal to
the curve y 2 x can have the slope equal to 5
(c) The magnitude of the gradient of the tangent at an
extremity of latus rectum of the hyperbola
2 2
2 2
x y
1
a b

is equal to e (where e is the eccentricity of the
hyperbola)
(d) TP and TQ are tangents to the parabola, y
2
= 4ax at P
and Q. If the chord PQ passes through the fixed point
(a, b) then the locus of T is y = 2a (x a)
Spac e f or Rough Work
IIT-JEE Mock Test - 1 3
SECTION III - Matrix-Match Type
This section contains 2 questions. Each question contains statements given in two columns, which have to be
matched. The statements in Column-I are labelled A, B, C and D, while the statements in Column-II are
labelled p, q, r, s and t. Any given statement in Column -I can have correct matching with ONE OR MORE
statement(s) in Column-II. The appropriate bubbles corresponding to the answers to these questions have to be
darkened as illustrated in the following example:
p q r s t
p
p
p
q
q
q
r
r
r
s
s
s
t
t
t
p q r s t
A
B
C
D
If the correct matches are Ap, s and t; Bq and r; Cp and q; and Ds and t; then the correct darkening
of bubbles will look like the given :
13. Column-I Column-II
(A) The values of
2 4
cos sin + for all p. belong to (0, 1]
(B) In a ABC if tan A < 0 then values of tan B tan C q. belong to
3
,1
4
1
1
]
(C) For any real , n n I the values of
2
2
cos 1
cos cos

+
r. are less than 0
or greater than 2
(D) If 0, 0and
3
A B A B

> > + then the values of

3tan tan A B
s. belong to (0, 1)
14. Column-I Column-II
(A) The roots of cubic equation (z + )
3
=
3
( ) 0, R represent the vertices of a p. | tan |
triangle of area equal to
(B) If is a complex number then the radius of the circle
z
z

= 2 is equal to q.
2
| |
4
3 3

(C) If arg z = and 1 z =1 then

z 2
z

is equal to r.
| |
3
2

(D) Let A and B represent complex numbers z
1
and z
2
, which are roots of the equation s.
2
cos 4
2

z
2
+ pz + q = 0. If AOB = 0 and OA = OB, where O is the origin then
2
p
q
is equal to
Spac e f or Rough Work
4 IIT-JEE Mock Test - 1
SECTION IV - Comprehension Type
This section contains 2 groups of questions. Each group has 3
multiple choice questions based on a paragraph. Each question
has 4 choices (a), (b), (c) and (d) for its answer, out of which ONLY
ONE is correct.
Paragraph for question nos. 15 to 17
Let E : denotes the event that a student does his homework
with P (E) = p and F : denotes the event that he answer the question
correctly.
15. If p = 0.75, then the value of P (E/F) equals
(a)
8
16
(b)
10
16
(c)
12
16
(d)
15
16
16. The relation P (E/F) P (E) holds good for
(a) all values of p in [0, 1]
(b) all values of p in (0, 1) only
(c) all values of p in [0.5, 1] only
(d) p = 0, 1
17. Suppose that each question has n alternative answers of
which only one is correct, and p is fixed but not equal to 0 or
1 then P (E/F)
(a) decreases as n increases for all p (0, 1)
(b) increases as n increases for all p (0, 1)
(c) remains constant for all p (0, 1)
(d) decreases if p (0, 0.5) and increases if p (0.5, 1) as
n increases.
Paragraph for question nos. 18 to 20
Consider a polygon of sides n which satisfies the equation
3.
n
P
4
=
n1
P
5
.
18. Rajdhani express travelling from Delhi to Mumbai has 10
stations enroute. Number of ways in which a train can be
stopped at 3 stations if no two of the stopping stations are
consecutive, is
(a) 20 (b) 35
(c) 56 (d) 85
19. Number of quadrilaterals that can be made using the vertices
of the polygon of sides 10 if exactly two adjacent sides of
the quadrilateral are common to the sides of the n-gon, is
(a) 50 (b) 60
(c) 70 (d) None of these
20. Number of quadrilaterals that can be formed using the
vertices of a polygon of sides 10 if exactly 1 side of the
quadrilateral is common with the side of the n-gon, is
(a) 150 (b) 100
(c) 96 (d) None of these
..Par t - B : Physi c s..
SECTION I - Single Correct Choice Type
This section contains 8 multiple choice questions. Each question
has 4 choices (a), (b), (c) and (d) for its answer, out of which ONLY
ONE is correct.
21. Two blocks each of mass m lie on a smooth table. They are
attached to two other masses as shown in the figure. The
pulleys and strings are light. An object O is kept at rest on
the table. The sides AB and CD of the two blocks are made
reflecting. Find the acceleration of two images formed in
those two reflecting surfaces w.r.t. each other.
Spac e f or Rough Work
IIT-JEE Mock Test - 1 5
3m 2m
m m
B D
A C
O
(a) 17g/6 (b) 7g/6
(c) 11g/6 (d) 5g/6
22. A small quantity of solution containing Na
24
radionuclide
(half life 15 hours) of activity 1.0 microcurie is injected into
the blood of a person. A sample of the blood of volume
1cm
3
taken after 5 hours shows an activity of 296
disintegrations per minute. Determine the total volume of
blood in the body of the person. Assume that the radioactive
solution mixes uniformly in the blood of the person.
(1 curie = 3.7 10
10
disintegrations per second).
(a) 5.91 litres (b) 0.91 litres
(c) 3.21 litres (d) 4.12 litres
23. Consider the potentiometer circuit arranged as in figure.
The potentiometer wire (resistance 15r) is 600 cm long. If the
jockey touches the wire at a distance of 560 cm from A, what
will be the current in the galvanometer ?
N
r
A
E/2
E
G
r
(a) 3E/22r (b) 5E/22r
(c) 3E/11r (d) 5E/11r
24. Three identical positive charges Q are arranged at the vertices
of an equilateral triangle. The side of the triangle is a. Find
the intensity of the field at the vertex of a regular tetrahedron
of which the triangle is the base.
(a)
2
KQ
6
a
(b)
2
KQ
2
a
(c)
2
KQ
3
a
(d) None of these
25. A point source is emitting sound in all directions. Find the
ratio of distance of two points from the point source where
the difference in loudness levels is 3 dB. (log
10
2 = 0.3)
(a) 2 (b) 3
(c) 1/2 (d) 1/ 2
26. 0.5 mole of an ideal gas at constant temperature 27C kept
inside a cylinder of length L and cross-section area A closed
by a massless piston.
The cylinder is attached with a conducting rod of length L

,
cross-section area (1/9)

m
2
and thermal conductivity K,
whose other end is maintained at 0C. If piston is moved
such that rate of heat flow through the conducing rod is
constant then velocity of piston when it is at height L/2
from the bottom of cylinder is :
[Neglect any kind of heat loss from system]
(a)
K
m/ sec
R
_

,
(b)
K
m/ sec
10R
_

,
(c)
K
m/ sec
100R
_

,
(d)
K
m/ sec
1000R
_

,
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6 IIT-JEE Mock Test - 1
27. A U-tube of base length l filled with same volume of two
liquids of densities and 2 is moving with an acceleration
a on the horizontal plane. If the height difference between
the two surfaces (open to atmosphere) becomes zero, then
the height h is given by
h
a
(a)
a
2g
l
(b)
3a
2g
l
(c)
a
g
l
(d)
2a
3g
l
28. An object is moving in the xy plane with the position as a
function of time given by

r x(t)i y(t) j +
r
. Point O is at
r 0
r
. The distance of object from O is definitely decreasing
when
(a) v
x
> 0, v
y
> 0 (b) v
x
< 0, v
y
< 0
(c) xv
x
+ yv
y
< 0 (d) xv
x
+ yv
y
> 0
SECTION II - Multiple Correct Choice Type
This section contains 4 multiple choice questions. Each question
has 4 choices (a), (b), (c) and (d) for its answer, out of which ONE
OR MORE is/are correct.
29. If the first minima in a Youngs double slit experiment occurs
directly in front of one of the slits, (distance between slit
and screen D=12cm and distance between slits d=5cm.) then
the wavelength of the radiation used can be
(a) 2 cm (b) 4 cm
(c) 2/3 cm (d) 4/3 cm
30. A small sphere of mass m suspended by a thread is first
taken aside so that the thread forms the right angle with the
vertical and then released, then
(a) total acceleration of sphere as a function of is
2
g 1 3cos + q
(b) thread tension as a function of is T =3mg cos
(c) the angle between the thread and the vertical at the
moment when the total acceleration vector of the sphere
is directed horizontally is
1
cos 1/ 3
-
(d) the thread tension at the moment when the vertical
component of the sphere's velocity is maximum will be
mg.
31. A horizontal plank has a rectangular block placed on it. The
plank starts oscillating vertically and simple harmonically
with an amplitude of 40 cm. The block just loses contact
with the plank when the latter is at momentary rest. Then
(a) the period of oscillation is (2/5)
(b) the block weighs double its weight, when the plank is
at one of the positions of momentary rest
(c) the block weighs 0.5 times its weight on the plank
halfway up
(d) the block weighs 1.5 times its weight on the plank
halfway down extreme.
32. A nonconducting disc having uniform positive charge Q, is
rotating about its axis with uniform angular velocity . The
magnetic field at the centre of the disc is

O
R
Q
(a) directed outward
(b) having magnitude
0
Q
4 R

(c) directed inwards

(d) having magnitude
0
Q
2 R

Spac e f or Rough Work

IIT-JEE Mock Test - 1 7
SECTION III - Matrix-Match Type
This section contains 2 questions. Each question contains statements given in two columns, which have to be
matched. The statements in Column-I are labelled A, B, C and D, while the statements in Column-II are
labelled p, q, r, s and t. Any given statement in Column -I can have correct matching with ONE OR MORE
statement(s) in Column-II. The appropriate bubbles corresponding to the answers to these questions have to be
darkened as illustrated in the following example:
p q r s t
p
p
p
q
q
q
r
r
r
s
s
s
t
t
t
p q r s t
A
B
C
D
If the correct matches are Ap, s and t; Bq and r; Cp and q; and Ds and t; then the correct darkening
of bubbles will look like the given :
33. Each of the properties of sound listed in the column - I primarily depends on one of the quantities in column - II. Write down the
matching pairs from the two columns.
Column I Column II
(A) pitch p. waveform
(B) quality q. frequency
(C) loudness r. intensity
(D) Sound level s. wavelength
34. According to Bohrs model of H-atom, if V
n
denotes the potential energy of electron, K
n
the kinetic energy, E
n
the total
energy and r
n
the radius of nth orbit, then match the following :
Column I Column II
(A)
?
n
n
V
K

p. 0
(B)
x
n n
E r , x = ? q. 2
(C)
1
, ?
y
n
Z y
r

r. 1
(D) Angular momentum in lowest orbital s. 1
SECTION IV - Comprehension Type
This section contains 2 groups of questions. Each group has 3
multiple choice questions based on a paragraph. Each question
has 4 choices (a), (b), (c) and (d) for its answer, out of which ONLY
ONE is correct.
Paragraph for question nos. 35 to 37
The figure shows the interference pattern obtained in
double-slit experiment using light of wavelength 600nm. 1, 2, 3, 4
and 5 are marked on the five fringes.
1 2 3 4 5
Central bright fringe
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8 IIT-JEE Mock Test - 1
35. The third order bright fringe is
(a) 2 (b) 5
(c) 4 (d) 3
36. Which fringe results from a phase difference of 4 between
the light waves emanating from two slits
(a) 2 (b) 3
(c) 5 (d) 4
37. Let X
A
and X
C
represent path differences between waves
interfering at 1 and 3 respectively then
( | X
C
| | X
A
| ) is equal to
(a) 0 (b) 300nm
(c) 600 nm (d) 900nm
Paragraph for question nos. 38 to 40
Superposition of waves results in maximum and minimum of
intensities such as in case of standing waves. This phenomenon
is called as interference. Another type of superposition result in
interference in time which is called as beats. In this case waves are
analyzed at a fixed point as a function of time. If the two waves are
of nearby same frequency are superimposed, at a particular point,
intensity of combined waves gives a periodic peak and fall. This
phenomenon is beats. If
1
and
2
are the frequencies of two
waves then by superimposed y = y
1
+ y
2
,

we get at
x = 0,
1 2 1 2
y 2Acos .t sin .t
2 2
1 + 1 _ _

1 1
, ,
] ]
Thus amplitude frequency is small and fluctuates slowly. A
beat i.e., a maximum of intensity occurs, also intensity depends
on square of amplitude. The beat frequency is given by
beat 1 2
| | .
Number of beats per second is called as beat frequency.
A normal ear can detect only upto 15 Hz of frequency because of
persistence of ear.
38. If two sound sources of frequency difference 25 Hz are
sounded together. Then which of the following is correct ?
(a) A normal human ear will hear 25 Hz beat frequency
(b) A normal human ear will hear only 10 Hz beat frequency
(c) A normal human ear cannot hear this frequency
(d) A normal human ear cannot hear this beat frequency
39. Two sources of frequency 50 Hz and 52 Hz vibrated together
to produce beats, frequency of resultant wave
(a) 51 Hz (b) 1 Hz
(c) 2 Hz (d) 52 Hz
40. The frequency of beats produced when two sources of
sound are activated, one emitting wavelength 32 cm, other
32.2 cm is (Take v
sound
= 350 m/s)
(a) 14 (b) 18
(c) 7 (d) 10
..Par t - C : Chemi st r y..
SECTION I - Single Correct Choice Type
This section contains 8 multiple choice questions. Each question
has 4 choices (a), (b), (c) and (d) for its answer, out of which ONLY
ONE is correct.
41. An evacuated glass vessel weighs 50.0 g when empty, 148.0
g when filled with a liquid of density 0.98 g mL
1
and 50.5 g
when filled with an ideal gas at 760 mmHg at 300 K. Determine
the molar mass or the gas.
(a) 123 g mol
1
(b) 133 g mol
1
(c) 128 g mol
1
(d) 111 g mol
1
42. The energy of the electron in the second and third Bohr
orbits of the hydrogen atom is 5.42 10
19
J and
2.41 10
19
J, respectively. Calculate the wavelength of
the emitted radiation when the electron drops from third to
second orbit.
(a) 6.104 10
6
m. (b) 6.604 10
7
m.
(c) 2.604 10
7
m. (d) 4.604 10
7
m.
Spac e f or Rough Work
IIT-JEE Mock Test - 1 9
43. The densities of graphite and diamond are 2.25 and 3.51 gm/
cc. TheG
r
value are 0 J mol
1
and 2900 J mol
1
for graphite
and diamond respectively. Calculate the equilibrium pressure
for the conversion of graphite into diamond at 25C.
(a) 0.12 10
9
Pa (b) 3.12 10
9
Pa
(c) 5.32 10
9
Pa (d) 1.52 10
9
Pa
44. A solution has 0.05 M Mg
2+
and 0.05 NH
3
. Calculate the
approximate concentration of NH
4
Cl required to prevent
the formation of Mg(OH)
2
in solution.
sp[Mg(OH) ]
2
K
= 9.0 10
12
and ionization constant of NH
3
is 1.8 10
5
.
[Given : log 1.8 = 0.2552, log 1.34 = 0.1271]
(a) 0.067 M (b) 0.67 M
(c) 1.67 M (d) 1.27 M
45. I effect is shown by
(a) Aryloxy (b) Ethyl
(c) Isopropyl (d) tert-butyl
46. Consider the cell Ag(s) | AgBr(s)|Br

(aq)|| AgCl(s) | Cl

(aq)
| Ag(s) at 25C. The solubility product constants of AgBr &
AgCl are respectively 5 10
13
& 1 10
10
. For what ratio
of the concentrations of Br

& Cl

ions would the emf of the

cell be zero ? [Given : 0.059 log 5 10
13
= 0.7257]
(a) 1 : 200 (b) 1 : 100
(c) 1 : 500 (d) 200 : 1
47. Which of the following complex will show geometrical as
well as optical isomerism. [en = ethylene diamine]
(a) [Pt(NH
3
)
2
Cl
2
] (b) [Pt(NH
3
)Cl
4
]
(c) [Pt(en
3
)]
4+
(d) [Pt(en)
2
Cl
2
]
48.
O
Ph
CH
2
CH Br
2
O
NaOCH
3
Product
Product is/are
(a)
O
Ph
CH CH OCH
2 2 3
O (b)
O
Ph
CO CH
3
O
(c)
O
Ph
C OCH
3
O
(d)
O
Ph
COCH
3
SECTION II - Multiple Correct Choice Type
This section contains 4 multiple choice questions. Each question
has 4 choices (a), (b), (c) and (d) for its answer, out of which ONE
OR MORE is/are correct.
49. Which of the following statement is false regarding follow-
ing reaction ?
Cl
Cl
NO
2
1
2
3
4
5
6
+ NH
3
heat
pressure
(a) No reaction is possible because Cl is present on
benzene ring.
(b) A nucleophilic substitution will take place in which
both Cl will be replaced by two NH
2
groups.
(c) A nucleophilic substitution will take place in which
only Cl attached on C
1
will be replaced by NH
2
.
(d) A nucleophilic substitution will take place in which
only Cl attached on C
4
will be replaced by NH
2
.
Spac e f or Rough Work
10 IIT-JEE Mock Test - 1
50. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true ?
(a) ionisation energy
1
Screening effect
(b) The first ionisation energies of Be and Mg are more
than ionisation energies of B and Al respectively
(c) Atomic and ionic radii of Niobium and Tantalum are
almost same
(d) Metallic and covalent radii of potassium are 2.3 and
2.03 respectively.
51. Two elements A and B form compounds having molecular
formula AB
2
and AB
4
. When dissolved in 20g of C
6
H
6
. 1g
of AB
2
lowers the freezing point by 2.3 K, whereas 1.0g of
AB
4
lowers it by 1.3 K. The molar depression constant for
benzene is 5.1 K kg mol
1
. Then
(a) Atomic mass of A = 25.58 u
(b) Atomic mass of B = 42.64 u
(c) Atomic mass of A = 42.64 u
(d) Atomic mass of B = 25.58 u
52. Choose the correct options for inferences drawn.
(a) Canary yellow precipitate with ammonium molybdate
PO
4
3
(b) Brown ring test with dil. H
2
SO
4
NO
2

(c) Yellow ppt. with HgCl

2
solution SO
4
2
(d) Yellow ppt. with HgCl
2
solution NO
3

SECTION III - Matrix-Match Type

This section contains 2 questions. Each question contains statements given in two columns, which have to be
matched. The statements in Column-I are labelled A, B, C and D, while the statements in Column-II are
labelled p, q, r, s and t. Any given statement in Column -I can have correct matching with ONE OR MORE
statement(s) in Column-II. The appropriate bubbles corresponding to the answers to these questions have to be
darkened as illustrated in the following example:
p q r s t
p
p
p
q
q
q
r
r
r
s
s
s
t
t
t
p q r s t
A
B
C
D
If the correct matches are Ap, s and t; Bq and r; Cp and q; and Ds and t; then the correct darkening
of bubbles will look like the given :
53. Column I Column II
(A) Definite dipole moment p. CH
3
Cl
(B) CH
4
+ Cl
2
(excess) q. CHCl
3
(C) CH
3
COCH
2
CH
3
+ alkaline Cl
2
r. CCl
4
(D) Reacts with ammonium silver nitrate s. CH
2
Cl
2
54. Column I Column II
(A) CH
2
= CHCN
3 2
(CH ) NH + p. Transition state involves
pentavalent carbon
(B)
2
CH CHCN
catalyst

q. Nucleophilic substitution
(C)
3
O
||
CH C Cl
3 2
(CH ) NH +
r. Nucleophilic addition
(D) ClCH
2
CH = CHCN + (CH
3
)
2
NH s. Free radical addition
Spac e f or Rough Work
IIT-JEE Mock Test - 1 11
SECTION IV - Comprehension Type
This section contains 2 groups of questions. Each group has 3
multiple choice questions based on a paragraph. Each question
has 4 choices (a), (b), (c) and (d) for its answer, out of which ONLY
ONE is correct.
Paragraph for question nos. 55 to 57
The shapes of molecules can be predicted by VSEPR theory,
hybridization and dipole moment. Total number of hybrid orbitals
(H) on the central atom of a molecule can be calculated by using
the following relation :
H = [Total no. of valence electron pairs (P)3 (no. of atoms
surrounding the central atom, excluding Hydrogen atoms)]
One can also calculate total no. of bond pairs (n) around
central atom as n = total number of atoms surrounding the central
atom also, total no. of lone pairs (m) = H n
Thus, VSEPR notation of a molecule can be written as
AX
n
E
m
. Where, A denotes central atom of the molecule.
X denotes bond pairs on central atom of the molecule.
E denotes lone pairs on central atom of the molecule.
In a polar molecule, the net dipole moment of the molecule
m
55. VSEPR notation of chlorine trifluoride molecule is
(a) AX
5
(b) AX
3
(c) AX
2
E
3
(d) AX
3
E
2
56. Some molecules are given below
CO
2
, SO
2
, H
2
O
I II III
The incorrect increasing order of dipole moment of given
species is
(a) I < II < III (b) II < I < III
(c) III < II < I (d) III < I < II
57. Total number of hybrid orbitals on central iodine in tri-iodide
ion, are
(a) 2 (b) 3
(c) 4 (d) 5
Paragraph for question nos. 58 to 60
Consider the inter conversion of nitrosotriacetoamine into
nitrogen phorone and water.
(aq) N
2
(g) + H
2
O(l )
+ (aq) 20 kJ/ mol
The reaction is 1st order in each direction, with an equilibrium
constant of 10
4
, the activation energy for the forward reaction is
57.45 kJ/ mol. Assuming arrhenius preexponetial factor of 10
12
s
1
.
58. What is the expected forward rate constant at 300K , if we
initiate this reaction starting with only reactant
(a) 10
2
(b) 10
6
(c) 10
8
(d) 10
4
59. If the change in entropy of the reaction is 0.07 kJ. K
1
mol

1
at 1 atm pressure. Calculate up to which temperature the
reaction would not be spontaneous. (For forward reaction)
(a) T < 285.7 K (b) T > 250 K
(c) T < 340.2 K (d) T > 200 K
60. Calculate K
p
of the reaction at 300 K
(a) 2.4 10
4
atm
1
(b) 10
4
atm
(c) 24.6 10
4
atm (d) 2.82 10
2
atm
1
Spac e f or Rough Work
12 IIT-JEE Mock Test - 1
..Par t - A : Mat hemat i c s..
SECTION I - Single Correct Choice Type
This section contains 4 multiple choice questions. Each question
has 4 choices (a), (b), (c) and (d) for its answer, out of which ONLY
ONE is correct.
1. f(x) = sin
4

x
6
_
+

,
+ cos
4

x
6
_
+

,
is
(a) not a periodic function
(b) a periodic function with period 2
(c) a periodic function with period
(d) a period function with period /2
2. If is an imaginary cube root of unity, then a root of the
equation
2
2
2
x 1
x 1
1 x 2
+
+
+
= 0 is
(a) x = 1 (b) x = (c) x =
2
(d) x = 0
3. Let f (x, y) = 0 be the equation of a circle such that
f (0, y) = 0 has equal real roots and f (x, 0) = 0 has two distinct
real roots. Let g (x, y) = 0 be the locus of point P from where
tangents to circle f (x, y) = 0 make angle /3 between them
and g (x, y) = x
2
+ y
2
5x 4y + c, c R.
Let Q be a point from where tangents drawn to circle
g (x, y) = 0 are mutually perpendicular. If A, B are the points
of contact of tangents drawn from Q to circle g (x, y) = 0,
then area of triangle QAB is
(a)
25
12
(b)
25
8
(c)
25
4
(d)
25
2
* GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS :
1. Section I : Q. No. 1 to 4, Q. No. 20 to 23 and Q. No. 39 to 42 are Single Correct Choice Type questions. For this section, 3 marks
will be awarded for correct answer and zero marks for no answer. In all other cases, 1 mark will be awarded.
2. Section II : Q. No. 5 to 9, Q. No. 24 to 28 and Q. No. 43 to 47 are Multiple Correct Choice Type questions. For this section, 4
marks will be awarded for correct answer and zero marks for no answer. In all other cases, 1 mark will be awarded.
3. Section III : Q. No. 10 & 11, Q. No. 29 & 30 and Q. No. 48 & 49 are Multiple Matrix-Match Type questions. Each question
contains statements given in two columns, which have to be matched. The statements in Column-I are labelled A, B, C and D,
while the statements in Column-II are labelled p, q, r, s and t. Any given statement in Column -I can have correct matching with
ONE OR MORE statement(s) in Column-II. 2 marks each will be awarded for darkening the correct bubble in each row. Hence
the maximum marks of each question is 8 marks. No negative mark will be awarded for an incorrectly bubbled answer.
4. Section IV : Q. No. 12 to 19, Q. No. 31 to 38 and Q. No. 50 to 57 are Integer Answer Type questions. In this section, 4 marks
will be awarded for correct answer and 1 mark for each wrong answer. Marks will be awarded only if you have darken the
appropriate bubble.
Ti me : 180 mi nut es M ax. M arks : 240
PAPER - 2
Spac e f or Rough Work
IIT-JEE Mock Test - 1 13
4. If b
1
, b
2
and b
3
(b
1
> 0) are three successive terms of a G.P.
with common ratio r, the value of r for which the inequality
b
3
> 4b
2
3b
1
holds, is given by
(a) r > 3 (b) r < 1 (c) 1 < r < 2 (d) 2 < r < 3
SECTION II - Multiple Correct Choice Type
This section contains 5 multiple choice questions. Each question
has 4 choices (a), (b), (c) and (d) for its answer, out of which ONE
OR MORE is/are correct.
5. Let f : A B and g : B C be functions and gof : A C.
Which of the following statement is true
(a) If gof is one-one then f and g both are one-one
(b) If gof is one-one then if is also one-one
(c) If gof is bijection then f is one-one and g is onto
(d) If f and g are both one-one then gof is one-one.
6. In the expansion of (x + y + z)
20
(a) coefficient of x
7
y
8
z
7
is zero
(b) total number of distinct terms is 231
(c) every term is of the form
20 r r k k
20!x y z
(20 r)!(r k)!k!
- -
- -
(d) sum of coefficient is 3
20
7. The locus of the mid point of the focal radii of a variable
point moving on the parabola, y
2
= 4ax is a parabola whose
(a) latus rectum is half the latus rectum of the original parabola
(b) vertex is (a/2, 0)
(c) directrix is y-axis
(d) focus has the coordinate (a, 0)
8. For the hyperbola 9x
2
16y
2
18x + 32y 151= 0
(a) one of the directrix is x = 21/5
(b) length of the latus rectum = 9/2
(c) focii are (6, 1) and ( 4, 1)
(d) eccentricity is 5/4
9. Let
1 1 1 2
E .....
3 50 3 50
1 1
+ + + +
1 1
] ]
upto 50 terms, then
(a) E is divisible by exactly 2 primes
(b) E is prime
(c) E 30 (d) E < 35
SECTION III - Matrix-Match Type
This section contains 2 questions. Each question contains statements given in two columns, which have to be
matched. The statements in Column-I are labelled A, B, C and D, while the statements in Column-II are
labelled p, q, r, s and t. Any given statement in Column -I can have correct matching with ONE OR MORE
statement(s) in Column-II. The appropriate bubbles corresponding to the answers to these questions have to be
darkened as illustrated in the following example:
p q r s t
p
p
p
q
q
q
r
r
r
s
s
s
t
t
t
p q r s t
A
B
C
D
If the correct matches are Ap, s and t; Bq and r; Cp and q; and Ds and t; then the correct darkening
of bubbles will look like the given :
10. Column-I Column-II
(A) If a,b,c are unequal positive numbers and b is A.M of a and c then the roots of p. of opposite signs
ax
2
+ 2bx + c = 0 are
(B) If a R, then the roots of the equation x
2
(a + 1)x a
2
4 = 0 are q. rational numbers
(C) If a, b, c are unequal positive numbers and b is H.M of a and c then the roots of r. real and unequal
ax
2
+ 2bx + c = 0 are
(D) If t a b < c and a = 0 then the roots of a
2
x
2
+ (b
2
+ a
2
c
2
) x + b
2
= 0 are s. imaginary
t. of same sign
Spac e f or Rough Work
14 IIT-JEE Mock Test - 1
11. Column-I Column-II
(A) a, b, c, d are four distinct real numbers and they are in A.P. If p. A rational number
2 (a b) + x (b c)
2
+ (c a)
3
= 2 (a d) + (b d)
2
+ (c d)
3
then the value of x can be
(B) If roots of equation ax
2
+ bx + c = 0, 0 a are and and the roots of the equation q. An irrational number
a
5
x
2
+ ba
2
c
2
x + c
5
= 0 are 4 and 8 then | | is
(C) If log
3
(log
5
x) + log
1/3
(log
1/5
y) = 1 and x
2
y = 1 ( , ) x y R then the value of 5x + y is r. 2
(D) Let a, b, c are rational numbers 1 a and x
1
, x
2
are the real roots of the equation s. 26
x
3
ax
2
+ bx c = 0 then x
1
x
2
is
SECTION IV - Integer Answer Type
This section contains 8 questions. The answer to each of the
questions is a single-digit integer, ranging from 0 to 9. The
appropriate bubbles below the respective question numbers in the
ORS have to be darkened. For example, if the correct answers to
question numbers X, Y, Z and W (say) are 6, 0, 9 and 2, respectively,
then the correct darkening of bubbles will look like the following:
0
X Y Z W
0 0 0
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
12. If n > 3 and n N , then find the value of
( )
.
n
r r
C C
0 1 2
( 1)( 1)( 1) ( 2)( 2)( 2) C abc C a b c C a b c + +
( 1) ( )( )( )
n
n
C a n b n c n + .
13. Find the principle value of the argument of the complex
number i
i
.
14. If sin cos q q and x, y, z satisfy the equations
cos sin cos 1 x p y p z q + +
sin cos 1 sin x p y p z q + +
( ) ( ) cos sin 2 x p q y p q z + + +
then find the value of x
2
+ y
2
+ z
2
.
15. A person has 6 friends and during a certain vacation he met
them during several dinners. He found that he dinned with
all the 6 exactly on one day, with every 5 of them on 2 days,
with every 4 of them on 3 days, with every 3 on 4 days; with
every 2 on 5 days. Furthers every friend was present at 7
dinners and every friend was absent at 7 dinners. Then find
the number of dinner(s) he had alone.
16. A straight line cuts the x-axis at point A (1, 0), and y-axis at
point B, such that .
4
OAB C
_
>

,
is a middle point
of AB, if B' is a mirror image of point B with respect to line OC
and C' is a mirror image of point C with respect to line BB',
then find the ratio of the areas of triangles ' and ' ' ABB BB C .
Spac e f or Rough Work
IIT-JEE Mock Test - 1 15
17. If a point P on the parabola
2
4 y x is taken such that the
point is at shortest distance from the circle
2 2
2 2 2 2 0, x y x y + + + tangents are drawn to the
circle and the parabola, then the area of the triangle
PAB
is
a
where A and B are the points of contact on two different
lines on circle and parabola respectively, then find the value
of a.
18. P (x, y) is a point, which moves in the xy plane such that
2 [ y ]=3 [ x ], where [ . ] denotes the greatest integer function
and 2 5 x , 3 6 y . Then find the area of the
region containing the point P (x, y) .
19. If
2 3
sin cos
( ) tan
2 sin 2 5
x x x
f x x x x
x x x
, then find the value of
0
( )
Lim
x
f x
x

.
..Par t - B : Physi c s..
SECTION I - Single Correct Choice Type
This section contains 4 multiple choice questions. Each question
has 4 choices (a), (b), (c) and (d) for its answer, out of which ONLY
ONE is correct.
20. In the figure shown S
0
is a monochromatic source of light
emitting light of wavelength (in air). Light falls on slit S
from S
0
and then reach the slits S
1
and S
2
through a medium
of refractive index
1
. Light from slits S
1
and S
2
reach the
screen through medium of refractive index
3
.
A thin transparent film of refractive index
2
and thickness
t is placed infront of S
2
. Point P is symmetrical w.r.t. S
1
and
S
2
. Using the values d = 1 mm, D = 1m,
1
= 4/3,
2
= 3/2,

3
= 9/5 and t = (4/9) 10
5
m. The distance of central
maxima from P is
d
P
Screen
D 2D
S
S
2
S
1 d
S
0

3 ,t
2
(a) 1mm (b) 0
(c) 2mm (d) 0.5mm
21. When a galvanometer is shunted with a 4 resistance, the
deflection is reduced to one-fifth. If the galvanometer is
further shunted with a 2 wire, the further reduction in the
deflection will be (the main current remains the same).
(a) (8/13) of the deflection when shunted with 4 only
(b) (5/14) of the deflection when shunted with 4 only
(c) (3/4) of the deflection when shunted with 4 only
(d) (3/13) of the deflection when shunted with 4 only
22. Two vibrating strings of the same material but length L and
2L have radii 2r and r respectively. They are stretched under
the same tension. Both the strings vibrate in their
fundamental modes, the one of length L with frequency
1

and the other with frequency

2
. The ratio
1 2
/ is given
by :
(a) 2 (b) 4
(c) 8 (d) 1
23. A steel wire of length 4 m and diameter 5 mm is stretched by
5 kg-wt. Find the increase in its length, if the Youngs
modulus of steel of wire is 2.4 10
12
dyne/cm
2
.
(a) 1.0041 cm. (b) 0.0041 cm.
(c) 4.1 cm. (d) 1.2 cm.
Spac e f or Rough Work
16 IIT-JEE Mock Test - 1
SECTION II - Multiple Correct Choice Type
This section contains 5 multiple choice questions. Each question
has 4 choices (a), (b), (c) and (d) for its answer, out of which ONE
OR MORE is/are correct.
24. A parallel beam of light ( = 5000 ) is incident at an angle
= 30 with the normal to the slit plane in a Youngs double
slit experiment. Assume that the intensity due to each slit at
any point on the screen is I
0
. Point O is equidistant from S
1
and S
2
. The distance between slits is 1mm.
O
S
1
S
2
3 m
(a) the intensity at O is 4I
0
(b) the intensity at O is zero
(c) the intensity at a point on the screen 1m below O is 4I
0
(d) the intensity at a point on the screen 1m below O is
zero
25. A double star is a system of two stars of masses m and 2m,
rotating about their centre of mass only under their mutual
gravitational attraction. If r is the separation between these
two stars then their time period of rotation about their centre
of mass will be proportional to
(a) r
3/2
(b) r
(c) m
1/2
(d) m
1/2
26. In the figure shown, the plates of a parallel plate capacitor
have unequal charges. Its capacitance is C. P is a point
outside the capacitor and close to the plate of charge Q.
The distance between the plates is d.
2Q Q
P
(a) A point charge at point 'P' will experience electric force
due to capacitor
(b) The potential difference between the plates will be
3Q/2C
(c) The energy stored in the electric field on the region
between the plates is 9Q
2
/8C
(d) The force on one plate due to the other plate is
2
2
0
Q
2 d
27. Suppose the potential energy between electron and proton
at a distance r is given by
2
3
Ke
3r

. Application of Bohrs s
theory to hydrogen atom in this case shows that
(a) energy in the nth orbit is proportional to n
6
(b) energy is proportional to m
3
(m : mass of electron)
(c) energy in the nth orbit is proportional to n
2
(d) energy is proportional to m
3
(m = mass of electron)
28. During an experiment, an ideal gas is found to obey a
condition
2
P
constant

[ = density of the gas]. The gas

is initially at temperature T, pressure P and density . The
gas expands such that density changes to /2
(a) The pressure of the gas changes to 2 P
(b) The temperature of the gas changes to 2 T
(c) The graph of the above process on the P-T diagram is
parabola
(d) The graph of the above process on the P-T diagram is
hyperbola
Spac e f or Rough Work
IIT-JEE Mock Test - 1 17
SECTION III - Matrix-Match Type
This section contains 2 questions. Each question contains statements given in two columns, which have to be
matched. The statements in Column-I are labelled A, B, C and D, while the statements in Column-II are
labelled p, q, r, s and t. Any given statement in Column -I can have correct matching with ONE OR MORE
statement(s) in Column-II. The appropriate bubbles corresponding to the answers to these questions have to be
darkened as illustrated in the following example:
p q r s t
p
p
p
q
q
q
r
r
r
s
s
s
t
t
t
p q r s t
A
B
C
D
If the correct matches are Ap, s and t; Bq and r; Cp and q; and Ds and t; then the correct darkening
of bubbles will look like the given :
29. Column I Column II
(A) Electron jumps from lower to higher orbit p. Potential Energy changes
(B) A body is lifted in gravitational force q. Kinetic Energy changes
(C) Spring is compressed r. Negative work is done
(D) A body is pulled on a rough surface s. Conservative force acts
t. Non-conservative force acts
30. Column I Column II
A. Wattless current p. When circuit contains only C
B. Oscillating current q. When circuit contains only L
C. Heating effect r. When both L and C are used
D. Phase difference of
2

s. When all L, C & R are used

Spac e f or Rough Work
18 IIT-JEE Mock Test - 1
SECTION IV - Integer Answer Type
This section contains 8 questions. The answer to each of the
questions is a single-digit integer, ranging from 0 to 9. The
appropriate bubbles below the respective question numbers in the
ORS have to be darkened. For example, if the correct answers to
question numbers X, Y, Z and W (say) are 6, 0, 9 and 2, respectively,
then the correct darkening of bubbles will look like the following:
0
X Y Z W
0 0 0
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
31. The masses of 10 kg and 20 kg respectively are connected
by a massless spring in fig. A force of 200 newton acts on
the 20 kg mass. At the instant shown, the 10 kg mass has
acceleration 12 m/sec
2
. What is the acceleration (in m/s
2
) of
20 kg mass?
10 kg
20 kg
200 newton
32. A particle is moving on x-axis has potential energy
U = 2 20x + 5x
2
joules along x-axis. The particle is released at
x = 3. If the mass of the particle is 0.1 kg, then find how many
times of ten is the maximum velocity (in m/s) of the particle.
33. The length of a wire between the two ends of a sonometer is
105cm. If the sum of the distances of the positions of the two
bridges from one end is expressed as (182 x) cm so that the
fundamental frequencies of the three segments are in the
ratio of 1 : 3 : 15. Find the value of x.
34. A brass rod of length 50 cm and diameter 3.0 mm is joined to a
steel rod of the same length and diameter. If the change in
length of the combined rod at 250 C is (A 10
2
) cm, given the
original lengths are at 40.0 C, what is the sum of digits of A?
The ends of the rod are free to expand (Co-efficient of linear
expansion of brass = 2.0 10
5
K
1
, steel = 1.2 10
5
K
1
).
35. Two long parallel wires carrying current 2.5 amperes and
1 ampere in the same direction (directed into the plane of
the paper ) are held at P and Q respectively such that they
are perpendicular to the plane of paper. The points P and Q
are located at a distance of 5 metres and 2 metres respectively
from a collinear point R (see figure). An electron moving
with a velocity of 4 10
5
m/s along the positive x- direction
experiences a force of magnitude 3.2 10
20
N at the point
R. Find the value of I (in ampere).

m
m
5
2
1A A 5 . 2
x ... .......... O O
R Q P
X X
36. A thin half ring of radius R = 20 cm is uniformly charged with
a total charge q = 0.70 millicoloumb (mC). If the magnitude
of electric field strength at the curvature centre of this half
ring is (100 k) V/m, find the value of k.
Spac e f or Rough Work
IIT-JEE Mock Test - 1 19
37. A hydrogen like atom (atomic number Z) is in a higher excited
state of quantum number n. The excited atom can make a
transition to the first excited state by successively emitting
two photons of energy 10.2 eV and 17.0 eV respectively.
Alternately, the atom from the same excited state can make
a transition to the second excited state by successively
emitting two photons of energies 4.25 eV and 5.95 eV
respectively. Determine the value of n.
(Ionization energy of H-atom = 13.6 eV)
38. A plano convex lens has a thickness of 4 cm . When placed
on a horizontal table, with the curved surface in contact with
it, the apparent depth of the bottom point of the lens is found
to be 3 cm. If the lens is inverted such that the plane face is in
contact with the table, the apparent depth of the centre of the
plane face is found to be 25/8 cm. If the focal length (in cm) of
the lens is 25y, find the value of y.
..Par t - C : Chemi st r y..
SECTION I - Single Correct Choice Type
This section contains 4 multiple choice questions. Each question
has 4 choices (a), (b), (c) and (d) for its answer, out of which ONLY
ONE is correct.
39. The bond dissociation enthalpies of H
2
(g) and N
2
(g) are
+ 435.95 kJ mol
1
and + 941.8 kJ mol
1
and enthalpy of
formation of NH
3
(g) is 46.024 kJ mol
1
. What is the
enthalpy of atomization of NH
3
(g)
(a) 0.170 MJ mol
1
(b) 1.70 MJ mol
1
(c) 1.170 MJ mol
1
(d) 2.130 MJ mol
1
40. In Ostwalds process for the manufacture of nitric acid, the
first step involves the oxidation of ammonia gas by oxygen
gas to give nitric oxide gas and steam. What is the maximum
weight of nitric oxide that can be obtained starting only
with 10.00 g of ammonia and 20.00 g of oxygen ?
(a) 15g (b) 20g
(c) 10g (d) 25g
41. The molar volume of liquid benzene (density=0.877 g ml
1
)
increases by a factor of 2750 as it vapourizes at 20C. At
27C when a non-volatile solute (that does not dissociate)
is dissolved in 54.6 cm
3

of benzene, vapour pressure of this
solution, is found to be 98.88 mm Hg. Calculate the freezing
point of the solution.
Given : Enthalpy of vapourization of benzene (l ) = 394.57
Jg
1
. Enthalpy of fusion of benzene (l ) = 10.06 kJ mol
1
Molal depression constant for benzene = 5.0 K kg mol
1
.
[Given : log 100.2 = 2.00086, log 74.63 = 1.8729]
(a) 177.65 K (b) 277.65 K
(c) 517.65 K (d) 237.15 K
42. An unknown compound (A) with the M.F. C
9
H
12
O does
not decolorize Br
2
in CCl
4
and is oxidised by hot KMnO
4
to
give PhCO
2
H. The compound reacts with Na to give a
colourless and odourless gas. From the following results
deduce the correct structure for (A).
(i) The colour of Cr
2
O
7
2-
changes from orange to blue-green.
(ii) The compound can be resolved.
(iii) No precipitate of CHI
3
is observed with I
2
/ OH
-
.
(iv) Oxidation with CrO
3
/ pyridine gives a chiral compound.
(a)
Ph
CH
3 H
OH
(b) CH
3
H
OH
Ph
(c) Ph
CH
3 OH
CH
3
(d)
Ph OH
Spac e f or Rough Work
20 IIT-JEE Mock Test - 1
SECTION II - Multiple Correct Choice Type
This section contains 5 multiple choice questions. Each question
has 4 choices (a), (b), (c) and (d) for its answer, out of which ONE
OR MORE is/are correct.
43. A solution of 0.2g of a compound containing Cu
2+
and
C
2
O
4
2
ions on titration with 0.02M KMnO
4
in presence of
H
2
SO
4
consumes 22.6 mL of the oxidant. The resultant
solution is neutralized with Na
2
CO
3
, acidified with dil. acetic
acid and treated with excess KI. The liberated iodine requires
11.3 mL of 0.05 M Na
2
S
2
O
3
solution for complete reduction.
Then the correct options are
(a) Amount of C
2
O
4
2
in the solution = 1.13 10
3
mol
(b) Amount of Cu
2+
in the solution = 0.56 10
3
mol
(c) Amount of C
2
O
4
2
in the solution = 0.56 10
3
mol
(d) Amount of Cu
2+
in the solution = 1.13 10
3
mol
44. Choose the correct statements
(a) BeO is insoluble but BeSO
4
is soluble in water.
(b) The carbon hydride of the type C
n
H
2n+2
act as Lewis
acid or base
(c) Due to its high bond enthalpy, dihydrogen is not
particularly reactive at room temperature
(d) The s-block elements are very reactive
45. Which of the following is (are) correct statement(s)
(assuming oxidation number of metal does not affect crystal
field energy)
(a) Considering H
2
O to be a weak ligand then on the basis
of CFSE only, we can say that [Co(H
2
O)
6
]
2+
is more
stable than [Co(H
2
O)
6
]
3+
(b) On the basis of CFSE only [Fe(NH
3
)
6
]
2+
is more stable
than [Fe(NH
3
)
6
]
+3
(c) All octahedral complexes of Ni(ll) are bound to be outer
d-complex
(d) The type of d-orbital involved in the hybridisation for
a square planar complex (CN = 4) is
2
z
d .
46. An aromatic chiral compound G (C
8
H
8
Br
2
) on treatment
with aqueous NaOH gives H (C
8
H
9
BrO). On heating G
with potassium tert-butoxide I (C
8
H
7
Br) is formed. With one
equivalent of methyl magnesium bromide in ether p-
bromoisopropylbenzene is formed which observation/s is/
are correct about these reactions.
(a) (I) is an optically inactive aromatic alkene
(b) H is an optically active phenol
(c) G =
(d) Benzylic halide gives nucleophilic substitution with
faster rate than aryl halide
47. Choose the correct options for
CH
3
CH
3
14
H OH
Na
a
Me Cl
I
II
Red P
I
2
b
MeONa
(a) I and II are identical
(b) I and II are different
(c) Mechanism of formation of I and II are same
(d) Mechanism of formation of I and II are different
Spac e f or Rough Work
IIT-JEE Mock Test - 1 21
SECTION III - Matrix - Match Type
This section contains 2 questions. Each question contains statements given in two columns, which have
to be matched. The statements in Column-I are labelled A, B, C and D, while the statements in Column-
II are labelled p, q, r, s and t. Any given statement in Column-I can have correct matching with ONE OR
MORE statement(s) in Column-II. The appropriate bubbles corresponding to the answers to these
questions have to be darkened as illustrated in the following example:
p q r s t
p
p
p
q
q
q
r
r
r
s
s
s
t
t
t
p q r s t
A
B
C
D
If the correct matches are Ap, s and t; Bq and r; Cp and q; and Ds and t; then the correct
darkening of bubbles will look like the given.
48. Column - 1 Column - II
(A) Left behind as waste in Kipps apparatus p. Mohrs salt
(B) It is green in colour q. Green vitriol
(C) On heating it leaves a residue that is brown in colour r. Basic copper carbonate
(D) On heating it leaves a residue that is black in colour s. Hydrated cupric chloride
49. Column - I Column - II
(A) CH
3
CH
2
CH
2
CN p. Reduction with PdC/H
2
(B) CH
3
CH
2
OCOCH
3
q. Reduction with SnCl
2
/HCl
(C) CH
3
CH= CHCH
2
OH r. Development of foul smell on
treatment with chloroform and
alcoholic KOH
(D) CH
3
CH
2
CH
2
CH
2
NH
2
s. Reduction with diisobutylaluminium
hydride(DIBAL-H)
t. Alkaline hydrolysis
Spac e f or Rough Work
22 IIT-JEE Mock Test - 1
SECTION IV - Integer Answer Type
This section contains 8 questions. The answer to each of the
questions is a single-digit integer, ranging from 0 to 9. The
appropriate bubbles below the respective question numbers in the
ORS have to be darkened. For example, if the correct answers to
question numbers X, Y, Z and W (say) are 6, 0, 9 and 2, respectively,
then the correct darkening of bubbles will look like the following:
0
X Y Z W
0 0 0
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
50. The dipole moment of KCl is 3.332 10
29
Coulomb meters
which indicates that it is a highly polar molecule. The
interatomic distance between K
+
and Cl

in this molecule is
2.6 10
10
m. The percentage ionic character of KCl is 10x
then find the value of x.
51. At 27C, hydrogen is leaked through a tiny hole into a vessel
for 20 minutes. Another unknown gas at the same
temperature and pressure as that of H
2
is leaked through
the same hole for 20 minutes. After the effusion of the gases
the mixture exerts a pressure of 6 atmosphere. The hydrogen
content of the mixture is 0.7 mole in a container of volume
3 litres. If the molecular weight of the unknown gas is
expressed as (1040 A), then what is the value of A.
52. How many dipeptides are possible from two molecules of
a typical -amino acid ?
53. The edge length of unit cell of LiCl having rock salt type
lattice is 5.14. If Li
+
ions precisely fit into the octahedral
woids of closed packed structure of Cl

ions. If the ionic
radius (in pm) of Cl

ions is expressed as 121x then what is

the value of x?
54. The vapour pressure of pure benzene at a certain temperature
is 640 mm Hg. A non-volatile non-electrolyte solid weighing
2.176 g is added to 39.0 g of benzene. The vapour pressure of
the solution is 600 mm Hg. If the molecular weight of the solid
substance is expressed as
130
A
then find the value of A.
55. We have taken a saturated solution of AgBr. K
sp
of AgBr is
12 10
14
. When 10
7
mole of AgNO
3
are added to 1 litre of
this solution then, conductivity (specific conductance) of
this solution is find as 11x 10
7
(S m
1
units). Find the
value of x. Given, molar conductance of Ag
+
, Br

and NO
3

are 610
3
Sm
2
mol
1
, 810
3
Sm
2
mol
1
and 710
3
Sm
2
mol
1
.
56. Consider a reaction aG + bH Products. When
concentration of both the reactants G and H is doubled, the
rate increases by eight times. However, when concentration
of G is doubled keeping the concentration of H fixed, the
rate is doubled. What will be the overall order of the reaction?
57. Reductive ozonolysis of myrcene, a terpenoid
gives how many different products?