Antimicrobial therapy of surgical infections. 1.

Pathogens most infections band surgery are: 1) Staphylococcus aureus; 2) the streptococcus; 3) the tubercle bacillus; 4) Enterobacteriaceae; 5), Pseudomonas aeruginosa. 2. Specify the agents of surgical infections with highly resistant to most antimicrobial agents: 1) metitsillinrezistentnye strains of Staphylococcus aureus; 2) Pseudomonas aeruginosa; 3) seratsiya; 4) enterobacter; 5) bacteroids. 3. Indication for antimicrobial therapy is: 1) a proven diagnosis of infectious diseases; 2) increasing temperature; 3) tachycardia; 4) an increase in erythrocyte sedimentation rate; 5) high levels of procalcitonin in the blood. 4. The least toxic antimicrobial agents are: 1) lactam antibiotics; 2) the tetracyclines; 3) the aminoglycosides; 4) polymyxins; 5) chloramphenicol. 5. When selecting an antimicrobial agent for treating a patient into account: 1) the type of pathogen;

2) the spectrum of the drug; 3) the type of drug interactions with the microbial cell; 4) The pharmacokinetics of the drug; 5) side effects of the drug. 6. Combined antibiotic therapy is necessary to observe the following rules: 1) The combination of drugs should expand the range of actions; 2) to use drugs that have the same spectrum of activity; 3) combined with bacteriostatic agents bactericidal; 4) only microbicides are combined with bactericidal; 5) do not combine drugs with similar side effects. 7. The effective concentration of antibiotic in the tissues is achieved with the introduction of the drug: 1) intravenously; 2) orally; 3) inside the abdominal cavity; 4) in the wound; 5) subcutaneously. 8. During antimicrobial therapy of surgical infections comply with the following principles: 1) for the diagnosis of "infectious disease" antibiotic therapy should be instituted immediately; 2) a rational antibiotic therapy is only possible when establishing a true pathogen and its susceptibility to antimicrobial agents; 3) the antibiotic must have the property to penetrate the affected tissues; 4) must be strictly complied with the terms of treatment;

5) mandatory registration of possible side effects and toxic drugs. 9. In the first phase of antibiotic therapy, pending the results of microbiological studies, drug selection is carried out taking into account: 1) the most likely spectrum of pathogens; 2) the possibility of penetration of antibiotics into the affected tissues and organs; 3) choose the least toxic drug; 4) choose a drug with a narrow spectrum of activity; 5) choose a drug with a broad spectrum of action. 10. For targeted antimicrobial therapy is characterized by: 1) high efficiency; 2) lower risk of developing resistance to drugs microflora; 3) high risk of developing resistance to drugs microflora; 4) lower the economic costs of treatment; 5) the high economic cost of treatment; 11. An indicator of the effectiveness of antibiotic treatment are: 1) reduction in body temperature; 2) reduction of leukocytosis; 3) an increase of band shift; 4) reduction of PCT; 5) increase in procalcitonin. 12. The reasons for failure of antibiotic treatment of surgical infections are: 1) Lack of surgical rehabilitation of the primary focus of infection; 2) the emergence of new foci of infection;

3) the resistance of pathogens to the drug; 4) The poor penetration of the drug in the pathological focus; 5) change agents in the treatment of disease. 13. Replacement of an antimicrobial drug in the treatment process is necessary in the circumstances: 1) obtain data on the microbial flora of resistance to the antibiotic used; 2) obtain data on the microbial landscape change in the treatment process; 3) absence of clinical benefit from therapy for 3-4 days; 4) The need for repeated surgery; 5) The emergence of new, more effective drug. 14. The course of antimicrobial therapy is stopped: 1) immediately after lowering the temperature; 2) immediately after the reduction of leukocytosis; 3) immediately after the patient's feeling better; 4) with persistent regression of local symptoms of infection; 5) with persistent regression of symptoms of systemic inflammatory response. 15. Specify a complication of systemic antimicrobial therapy: 1) allergic reactions; 2) dysbiosis; 3) kidney disease; 4) liver disease; 5) hearing loss. 16. Antiseptics have:

1) a strong antimicrobial action; 2) a broad spectrum of action; 3) a narrow spectrum of activity; 4) a minimal effect on the tissue when applied topically; 5) severe toxicity after systemic application. The correct answers: 1). 1, 2, 4, 5. 2). All. 3). 1, 5. 4). 1. 5). All. 6.) 1, 4, 5. 7). 1 and 2. 8). All. 9). 1, 2, 5. 10). 1, 2, 4. 11). 1, 2, 4. 12). All. 13). 1, 2, 3, 4. 14). 4 and 5. 15). All. 16). 1, 2, 4, 5. Purulent infection of the bones and joints. 1. The concept of "osteomyelitis" refers to the defeat: 1) cortical bone; 2) bone marrow; 3) purulent focus in the spongy substance metaepiphysis; 4) the periosteum; 5) all of these entities. 2. Specify the bones, the most affected, osteomyelitis: 1) of the lower extremities; 2) upper extremities; 3) the sternum; 4) edge;

5) vertebrae. 3. The source of infection in acute hematogenous osteomyelitis are: 1) chronic tonsillitis; 2) chronic sinusitis; 3) chronic otitis; 4) Acute purulent infections of the skin; 5) Acute purulent infections of soft tissues. 4. Signs of acute osteomyelitis are: 1) a sharp pain in the area of the lesion; 2) flexion contracture of the adjacent joint; 3) extension contracture of adjacent joints; 4) high body temperature; 5) purulent fistula. 5. Signs of traumatic osteomyelitis are: 1) The limited bone pain; 2) The congestion around the site of injury; 3) swelling at the site of injury; 4) exudation around the site of injury; 5) purulent fistula. 6. In the diagnosis of osteomyelitis is used: 1) X-rays; 2) X-ray computed tomography; 3) magnetic resonance imaging; 4) bone scintigraphy; 5) arthroscopy. 7. In the treatment of osteomyelitis is used: 1) sekvestnekrektomiyu; 2) medullary decompression; 3) Flow aspiration drainage of the wound;

4) The plasticity of bone defect; 5) plastic soft tissue defect around the bone. 8. For replacement of bone defects with osteomyelitis using: 1) crushed allogeneic cancellous bone; 2) biokompozitsionnye biodegradable materials; 3) supplies the muscle flap; 4) vascularized bone graft; 5) dosed compression-distraction osteosynthesis. 9. In acute bursitis in the projection of the bursa is determined by: 1) pain; 2) a dense tumor; 3) flushing of the skin; 4) local hyperthermia; 5) positive symptom fluctuations. 10. In the treatment of acute bursitis is used: 1) The evacuation of the periarticular fluid bag with a puncture; 2) the joint cavity lavage with antiseptics; 3) The tight compression bandage; 4) the wide opening of the cavity bags; 5) removal of necrotic tissue. 11. For suppurative arthritis is characterized by: 1) an intense pain in the joint; 2) an increase in the volume of the joint; 3) a decrease in the volume of the joint; 4) flushing of the skin over the joint; 5) absence of active movements in the joint.

12. For the diagnosis of acute suppurative arthritis is used: 1) ultrasound; 2) X-rays; 3) X-ray computed tomography; 4) magnetic resonance imaging; 5) arthroscopy. 13. In the treatment of suppurative arthritis is used: 1) The joint puncture with evacuation of the pathological exudate; 2) Flow aspiration drainage of the joint cavity; 3) wide arthrotomy with excision of nonviable tissue; 4) resection of the damaged joint; 5), prosthetic joint. The correct answers: 1). 5. 2). 1 3). All. 4). 1, 2, 4, 5. 5). All. 6.) 1, 2, 3, 4. 7). All. 8). All. 9). 1, 3, 4, 5. 10). 1, 3, 4, 5. 11). 1. 2, 4, 5. 12). All. 13). 1, 2, 3, 4. Purulent infection of the skin and soft tissues. 1. Factors predisposing to the appearance of boils, are: 1) reduced immunity; 2) violation of the rules of hygiene; 3) diabetes mellitus; 4) "occlusive" cosmetics; 5) depletion.

2. Specify the localization boil, representing the greatest threat of severe complications: 1) the nasolabial triangle; 2) the nose; 3) The sub-orbital region; 4) the inguinal region; 5) axillary region. 3. In the treatment of boils is used: 1) treating the skin of the affected area with an antiseptic solution; 2) moist dressing; 3) hot compress; 4) mechanical removal of purulentnecrotic core; 5) The bandage with crystals of salicylic acid. 4. Treatment of carbuncle includes: 1) excision of the carbuncle; 2) The opening of purulent cavity; 3) otseparovku skin flaps to viable tissue; 4) removal of necrotic tissue; 5) drainage of purulent cavities. 5. For erysipeloid characterized by the following local effects: 1) the localization of inflammation to the plantar surface of feet; 2) the localization of inflammation on the dorsum of the fingers; 3) The violet-red swelling at the introduction of the pathogen; 4) the presence of itching at the site of lesion; 5) lack of lymphangites and lymphadenitis. 6. Therapeutic measures for erysipeloid include: 1) immobilization of the wrist;

2) ultraviolet irradiation of the skin; 3) antibiotic; 4) immunotherapy; 5) warm compresses. 7. Treatment of abscess consists of: 1) opening the abscess; 2) The evacuation of pus; 3) washing the abscess cavity with antiseptic solutions; 4) drainage of abscess; 5) The plugging of abscess. 8. The main treatment for cellulitis is: 1) Local hypothermia; 2) hot compress; 3) antibiotic; 4) puncture drainage of cellulitis; 5) a wide opening and drainage of cellulitis. 9. Epithelial coccygeal movement: 1) is located under the skin sacrococcygeal region; 2) connected to the coccyx; 3) is not connected to the coccyx; 4) opens out into the crease mezhyagodichnoy; 5) contains hair, sweat and sebaceous glands. 10. In acute inflammation of epithelial coccygeal mezhyagodichnoy in the crease appears: 1) edema; 2) congestion; 3) pain; 4) swelling; 5) purulent fistula. 11. Specify the most frequent localization gidradenita: 1) the axilla; 2) groin;

3) the perineum; 4) the anterior abdominal wall; 5) The back of the neck. 12. Predisposing risk factors for mastitis are: 1) cracked nipples; 2) lactostasis; 3) non-compliance of breastfeeding; 4) Violation of pumping equipment; 5) diabetes. 13. Conservative treatment of mastitis include: 1) the elevated position of the breast; 2) pumping milk; 3) antibiotic; 4) retromammarnuyu novocaine blockade; 5) physical therapy. 14. Treatment of acute paraproctitis includes: 1) The opening of an abscess; 2) reorganization of abscess; 3) drainage of abscess; 4) removal of an abscess due to the gut; 5) The imposition of colostomy. 15. Symptoms felon are: 1) pain in the finger; 2) swelling of the fingers; 3) local hyperthermia of the skin of the affected finger; 4) the restriction of movement of the finger; 5) increase the amplitude of finger movement. 16. Surgical treatment of whitlow include: 1) local infiltration anesthesia; 2) complete exsanguination surgical

field; 3) the implementation of the cut skin on "non-working" surface of the finger and wrist; 4) The performance of skin incision for a "working" surface of the finger and wrist; 5) The immobilization of the operated finger or hand. 17. Treatment of ingrown toenails include: 1) laying between the edge of the nail and soft tissues of the finger narrow strips of gauze soaked in antiseptic solution; 2) the gradual extension of the deformed nail plate with special corrective appliances. 3) removal of the nail shaft and modified parts of the ingrown nail; 4) evaporation of the ingrown nail and the edge zone of the laser sprout; 5) Removal of ingrown nail. 18. Treatment of diabetic foot syndrome include: 1) The compensation of diabetes mellitus; 2) care for the feet; 3) the use of orthopedic tools to eliminate stress on the foot support; 4) The plastic closure of the wound defect on the foot; 5) saving amputation. The correct answers: 1). All. 2). 1, 2, 3. 3). 1, 5. 4). All. 5). 2. 3, 4, 5. 6.) 1, 2, 3. 7). 1, 2, 3, 4.

8). 5. 9). 1, 3, 4, 5. 10). All. 11). 1, 2, 3. 12). All. 13). All. 14). 1. 2, 3, 4. 15). 1, 2, 3, 4. 16). 2, 3, 5. 17). All. 18). All. ICE - syndrome. 1. When DIC occurs: 1) intravascular thrombus formation; 2) reduction of clotting factors; 3) activation of fibrinolysis; 4) dysfunction of the organs; 5) develop increased bleeding. 2. DIC occurs when: 1) The obstetric pathology; 2) boils; 3) extensive burns; 4) massive blood loss; 5) sepsis. 3. Clinical manifestations of DIC are: 1) acrocyanosis; 2) hemorrhagic skin rash; 3) bleeding of mucous membranes; 4) increase in blood pressure; 5) increase in body temperature. 4. When DIC is disturbed function: 1) The central nervous system; 2) the cardiovascular system; 3) the lungs; 4) of the liver; 5) of the kidneys. 5. Manifestations of DIC are: 1) thrombocytopenia;

2) increasing the level of fibrinogen; 3) decrease in fibrinogen level; 4) an increase in INR and aPTT prolongation; 5) increase in fibrinogen degradation products. 6. Treatment of DIC consists of: 1) Remove the starting factor in disseminated intravascular coagulation; 2) heparin; 3) the introduction of fresh frozen plasma; 4) The introduction of platelet; 5) infusion therapy. The correct answers: 1). All. 2). 1, 3, 4, 5. 3). 1, 2, 3. 4). All. 5). 1, 3, 4, 5. 6.) All. Detoxification therapy. 1. Endogenous intoxication causes: 1) destruction of tissue; 2) increased protein catabolism; 3) renal failure; 4) abnormal liver function; 5) heart failure. 2. Toxic substances of endogenous origin are: 1) The final and intermediate products of metabolism; 2) the decay products of tissue destruction of the centers; 3) The decomposition products from the gastrointestinal tract in violation of the barrier function of the intestinal wall;

4) microbial toxins; 5) cytokines. 3. Removal of toxic substances from the body provide: 1) kidney; 2) the lungs; 3) the gastrointestinal tract; 4) skin; 5) the sweat glands. 4. Serves as a manifestation of intoxication: 1) headache; 2) nausea; 3) pale skin; 4) the dryness of mucous membranes; 5) tachycardia. 5. An indicator of intoxication is improving: 1) low and medium molecular w8; 2) creatinine; 3) urea; 4) K; 5) bilirubin. 6. Accelerate the elimination of toxins from the body contributes to stimulation: 1) urine; 2) ventilation; 3) cardiac activity; 4) sweating; 5) The motor-evacuation function of the intestine. 7. Eliminate the endogenous intoxication with: 1) surgical removal source of intoxication; 2) peritoneal dialysis; 3) enterosobtsii; 4) infusion therapy;

5) The artificial methods of detoxification.

8. Surgical removal of the source of intoxication is achieved by: 1) drainage of purulent cavities; 2) removal of necrosis; 3) external diversion of the toxic contents of hollow organs; 4) external diversion of the toxic contents of the abdomen; 5) The formation of the bypass anastomosis. 9. Specify a vicarious detoxification methods: 1) hemodialysis; 2) hemofiltration; 3) forced diuresis; 4) plasmapheresis; 5) albumin dialysis. The correct answers: 1). 1, 2, 3, 4. 2). All. 3). All. 4). All. 5). All. 6.) 1, 2, 4, 5. 7). All. 8). 1, 2, 3, 4. 9). 1, 2, 4, 5. Diagnosis of surgical diseases. 1. Describe the main stages of the diagnostic process: 1) medical history; 2) clinical examination of the patient; 3) The statement of the preliminary diagnosis; 4) differential diagnosis; 5) instrumental and laboratory

diagnostics. 2. Enter the basic rules of the patient survey: 1) drink a special medical terms; 2) do not use a special medical terms; 3) questions the patient should be formulated in such a way as to obtain a definite answer; 4) questions the patient should be formulated so as to gain a broad interpretation of; 5) The initiative for the survey should belong to a doctor; 6) Initiative in the survey should belong to the patient. 3. The greatest diagnostic value are the complaints: 1) All complaints; 2) the deterioration of health; 3) on the sick; 4) reduction of disability; 5) specific. 4. Specify the characteristics of pain, are important for diagnosis: 1) The time of occurrence; 2) localization; 3) intensity; 4) irradiation; 5) precipitating and facilitating factors. 5. Diagnosis of help information: 1) an illness; 2) chronic disease; 3) received medications; 4) surgeries; 5) bad habits. 6. General examination reveals such symptoms as: 1) pale skin; 2) cyanosis of the skin;

3) the yellowness of the skin; 4) The deformation of the skeleton; 5) edema. 7. On examination the abdomen attention is paid to the presence of: 1) scar on the anterior abdominal wall; 2) swelling; 3) the asymmetry; 4) hernias; 5) the visible peristalsis of the bowel; 6) limit the respiratory excursions of the abdominal wall. 8. Auscultation of the abdomen to draw attention to the presence of: 1) lack of peristaltic bowel sounds; 2) increased peristaltic bowel sounds; 3) "splashing noise"; 4) vascular noise in the midline abdomen; 5) absence of respiratory sounds. 9. For percussion the abdomen attention is paid to the presence of: 1) pain; 2) a high tympanitic; 3) displacement of the boundary dull sound when changing body position; 4) increased peristaltic bowel sounds; 5) absence of liver dullness. 10. On palpation of attention is paid to the presence of: 1) The point of maximum tenderness; 2) Voltage protection of the abdominal muscles; 3) crepitations; 4) The external abdominal hernias; 5) The space-occupying lesions. 11. When viewed from a local pay attention to the presence of: 1) flushing of the skin;

2) The blueness of the skin; 3) swelling; 4) fluctuations; 5) pain. 12. When viewed from the extremities to pay attention to the presence of: 1) deformation; 2) edema; 3) changes in the volume of active and passive movements; 4) sensory disturbances; 5) pulsation of blood vessels; 13. The preliminary diagnosis is based on: 1) the complaint, the most disturbing patient; 2) all the complaints of the patient; 3) one main objective symptoms; 4) all the symptoms of the disease: 5) a combination of pathogenetic symptoms (syndrome). 14. In the differential diagnosis in the first place take into account: 1) all diseases with similar symptoms; 2) The most common diseases; 3) chronic disease; 4) acute illness; 5) diseases represent the greatest threat to the patient's life. 15. In the diagnosis of diseases should be used: 1) all of the available laboratory and instrumental methods of investigation; 2) only the methods needed to confirm or exclude preliminary diagnosis; 3) The only methods that do not give complications; 4) methods, easily carried by the patient; 5) The most informative methods.

The correct answers: 1). All. 2). 2, 3, 5. 3). 5. 4). All. 5). All. 6.) All. 7). All. 8). 1, 2, 3, 4. 9). 1, 2, 3, 5. 10). All. 11). All. 12). All. 13). 5. 14). 5. 15). 2, 3, 5. Infectious patient safety and medical personnel in the surgery. 1. Feature of hospital strains of microorganisms used: 1) high resistance in the environment; 2) low resistance in the environment; 3) low sensitivity to most antimicrobial agents; 4) high sensitivity to most antimicrobial agents; 5) a high prevalence in intensive care units. 2. The source of nosocomial infection are: 1) patients; 2) The medical staff; 3) medical equipment; 4) The items of patient care; 5) air. 3. Contact transmission occurs through: 1) The hands of staff; 2) The drainage system;

3) tools; 4) anesthetic and resuscitation equipment; 5) mattresses. 4. Hygienic hand antisepsis should be performed: 1) prior to direct contact with the patient; 2) before putting on sterile gloves; 3) after exposure to the patient's skin; 4) after the manipulation of patient care; 5) after contact with environmental objects that are in close proximity to the patient. 5. Used for hand disinfection agents must: 1) have a strong antiseptic effect; 2) to provide quick action; 3) to provide short-term effect; 4) destroy the microflora on the skin surface; 5) has no effect on the microflora in the deep layers of the skin. 6. All members of the surgical team before surgery should: 1) take a shower; 2) completely change into sterile clothing; 3) put on shoe covers; 4) wear a sterile mask; 5) wear safety glasses. 7. Specify the endogenous pathway of infection: 1) hematogenous; 2) pin; 3) implantation; 4) lymphogenous; 5) airborne.

8. Specify the exogenous pathway of infection: 1) hematogenous; 2) pin; 3) implantation; 4) lymphogenous; 5) airborne. 9. Antisepsis include: 1) The surgical treatment and drainage of wounds; 2) sanitation and drainage of purulent foci; 3) use of antibiotics and antiseptics; 4) The reorganization of foci of chronic infection; 5) the use of immunomodulators. 10. Specify products related to antiseptics: 1) sodium hypochlorite; 2) potassium permanganate; 3) isotonic sodium chloride solution; 4) a hypertonic solution of sodium chloride; 5) yodopiron. 11. Exogenous contamination of surgical wounds prevent: 1) The sterilization of surgical instruments; 2) ultraviolet irradiation of the air of operating rooms; 3) sterilization of suture material; 4) processing surgeon's hands; 5) treatment of the surgical field. 12. Specify the effective methods of sterilization of surgical instruments and linen: 1) autoclaving; 2) dry heat; 3) boiling; 4) gas sterilization;

5) gamma radiation. 13. For the sterilization of anesthetic equipment, endoscopic equipment and suture material used: 1) autoclaving; 2) dry heat; 3) antiseptics; 4) gas sterilization; 5) gamma radiation. 14. Indicate the benefits of disposable protective clothing and coverings made of natural woven fabric: 1) well let the air; 2) impervious to air; 3) absorb moisture well; 4) have a water-repellent effect; 5) provide protection against contamination. 15. Indicate potentially dangerous sources of infection of medical staff: 1) The patient's blood; 2) used injection needles; 3) used materials for dressings; 4) packets remaining after the transfusion of blood components; 5) The packaging of the drugs. 16. Universal precautions against infection with hepatitis B staff and HIV infection in possible contact with blood include: 1) the use of personal protective equipment; 2) avoidance of working with patients, biological materials and objects contaminated by their workers with skin lesions; 3) put caps on the needles; 4) Do not put caps on the needles; 5) conduct preventive vaccination of health workers against hepatitis B. 17. For personal protection of medical staff from infection is used: 1) rubber gloves; 2) points; 3) a mask; 4) aprons; 5) The replacement shoes. 18. The group at high risk of occupational infection with hepatitis B include: 1) The procedural nurses; 2) The operating surgeon and the surgical nurses; 3) The staff of the intensive care unit; 4) The personnel department of hemodialysis; 5) The hospital administration. The correct answers: 1). 1, 3, 5. 2). All. 3). All. 4). All. 5). 1, 2, 3. 6.) All. 7). 1, 3, 4. 8). 2, 5. 9). All 10). 1, 2, 5. 11). All. 12). 1, 2, 4, 5. 13). 3, 4, 5. 14). 2, 4, 5. 15). 1, 2, 3, 4. 16). 1, 2, 4, 5. 17). 1, 2, 3, 4. 18). 1, 2, 3, 4. Surgical infection and sepsis. 1. Local reaction to the outbreak of acute inflammation characterized by:

1) reduction of vascular tone; 2) the development of persistent venous congestion; 3) increased capillary permeability; 4) a decrease in capillary permeability; 5) tissue edema. 2. Specify the local manifestations of surgical infection: 1) red; 2) swelling; 3) increase in temperature; 4) pain; 5) dysfunction. 3. The signs of suppuration of infiltration are: 1) reduction in body temperature; 2) the emergence of hectic temperature; 3) the emergence of foci of softening in the previously dense infiltrate; 4) the positive symptom fluctuations; 5) increasing leukocytosis with a shift of leukocyte counts to the left. 4. When suppuration infiltration: 1) increase the antibacterial therapy; 2) the dotted line and drain purulent cavity; 3) reveal a purulent cavity; 4) designate a hot compress; 5) appoint a local hypothermia. 5. Specify the path the spread of infection in the body beyond the primary tumor: 1) pin; 2) lymphogenous; 3) hematogenous; 4) airborne; 5) enteral. 6. Systemic clinical signs of

inflammation are: 1) headache; 2) muscle pain; 3) flushing of the face; 4) increase in body temperature; 5) tachycardia. 7. Systemic inflammatory response syndrome develops when: 1) a large volume of tissue damage; 2) a high microbial contamination; 3) the presence in the source of toxins that stimulate the active release of cytokines by leukocytes; 4) interferes with the natural protective barriers; 5) the output of toxins into the systemic circulation. 8. Diagnostic criteria for systemic inflammatory response syndrome are: 1) body temperature above 38 C; 2) heart rate above 90 beats per minute; 3) the frequency of respiratory movements above 20 per minute; 4) white blood cells per liter higher than 12h109; 5) blood leukocytes following 4h109 per liter. 9. Specify the minimum criteria for the diagnosis of systemic inflammatory response syndrome: 1) a sign; 2) 2 signs; 3) 3 features; 4) four attributes; 5) the presence of a purulent focus. 10. Laboratory signs of infectious inflammation are: 1) leukocytosis with a shift to the left of the formula;

2) increasing plasma concentrations of procalcitonin; 3) decrease in plasma concentrations of procalcitonin; 4) increase in the concentration of Creactive protein; 5) reduction in the concentration of Creactive protein. 11. Specify the criteria for sepsis: 1) the presence of microorganisms in the blood without the syndrome of systemic inflammation; 2) the presence of only a systemic inflammatory response syndrome; 3) the presence of only the primary site of infection; 4) presence of systemic inflammatory response syndrome and the primary focus of infection; 5) severe condition of the patient. 12. Sepsis occurs when: 1) peritonitis; 2) pneumonia; 3) uroinfection; 4) The festering wounds; 5) infection of intravascular catheters. 13. Specify the minimum number of vital organs, dysfunction of which sepsis leads to multiple organ dysfunction syndrome: 1) 1; 2) 2; 3) 3; 4) 4; 5) 5. 14. Enter the surgical treatment of sepsis: 1) Surgical rehabilitation centers of infection; 2) antibiotic therapy;

3) infusion therapy; 4) Immunomodulating therapy; 5) nutrition. 15. Specify the types of surgical procedures performed in sepsis: 1) drainage of purulent cavities; 2) removal of infected foci of necrosis; 3) abduction of the proximal flow of the contents of the defects of hollow organs; 4) removal of the colonized prostheses; 5) removal of the colonized catheters. The correct answers: 1). 1, 2. 3, 5. 2). All. 3). 2. 3, 4, 5. 4). 2 and 3. 5). 1, 2, 3. 6.) All. 7). All. 8). All. 9). 2. 10). 1, 2, 4. 11). 4. 12). All. 13). 2. 14). All. 15). All. Infusion therapy. 1. Withdrawal of fluid from the body occurs through: 1) kidney; 2) the gastrointestinal tract; 3) the lungs; 4) the skin; 5) liver. 2. Movement of fluid between the water sector is determined by:

1) The permeability of capillaries; 2) the hydrostatic pressure gradient; 3) the gradient of amino acids; 4) The gradient of the electrolyte; 5) The gradient of the protein. 3. Specify the deficiency symptoms of fluid in the body: 1) thirst; 2) the dryness of mucous membranes; 3) increased salivation; 4) decrease in skin turgor; 5) an increase in urine volume. 4. Indications for fluid therapy is: 1) violation of hemodynamics; 2) hypovolemia; 3) water-electrolyte disorders; 4) intoxication; 5) lack of enteral fluid intake. 5. Contraindications to the infusion therapy is: 1) congestive heart failure; 2) acute renal failure; 3) hepatic impairment; 4) closed head injury; 5) reduction of blood pressure. 6. Specify the daily physiological need for water an adult weighing 70 kg: 1) 500-1000 mL; 2) 1000-1500ml; 3) 1500-2000 ml; 4) 2000-2500 ml; 5) 2500-3000 ml. 7. The volume of fluid injected is determined on the basis of: 1) The daily physiological needs of the body in a fluid; 2) the functional state of the heart; 3) renal function; 4) the functional state of the liver;

5) The amount of abnormal losses. 8. The criteria for selecting the vein for vascular access are: 1) a preference for a peripheral vein; 2) a preference for a central vein; 3) use of the larger veins; 4) The use of straight sections of veins; 5) use convoluted veins. 9. The infusion should not be used subcutaneous veins: 1) of the lower extremities; 2) on the flexor surfaces of joints; 3) on the injured limb; 4) the palmar surface of hands; 5) The inflamed vein. 10. Specify the daily physiological need for water an adult weighing 70 kg: 1) 500-1000 mL; 2) 1000-1500ml; 3) 1500-2000 ml; 4) 2000-2500 ml; 5) 2500-3000 ml; 11. The volume of fluid injected is determined on the basis of: 1) The daily physiological needs of the body in a fluid; 2) the functional state of the heart; 3) renal function; 4) the functional state of the liver; 5) The amount of abnormal losses. 12. Venous catheterization performed in the following cases: 1) the introduction of a large volume of solution; 2) conducting lengthy infusion; 3) conducting multiple infusions; 4) when transporting patients;

5) of the infusion in the excited faces. 13. The peculiarity of the peripheral venous access is: 1) The propensity for the development of phlebitis; 2) the limited time of operation; 3) the possibility of long-term operation; 4) the low rate of infusion; 5) The high rate of infusion. 14. Indications for central venous catheterization are: 1) lack of the required diameter of the peripheral veins; 2) the massive infusion; 3) a prolonged infusion; 4) conduct of extracorporeal detoxification; 5) the need for measurement of CVP. 15. To perform infusion therapy using central veins: 1) popliteal; 2) the subclavian; 3) the jugular; 4) axillary; 5) femur. 16. The peculiarity of subclavian venous access is: 1) patient comfort; 2) the inconvenience to the patient; 3) low incidence of infectious complications; 4) The high incidence of infectious complications; 5) the possibility of prolonged operation. 17. Complications of subclavian vein catheterization are: 1) hematoma;

2) pneumothorax; 3) hemothorax; 4) "The Fly" movie catheter; 5) air embolism. 18. The indication for removal of intravenous catheter is used: 1) the appearance of redness at the site of the catheter of standing; 2) thrombosing catheter; 3) leakage of fluid from the catheter; 4) pain on the introduction of drugs; 5) The continued use of the catheter. 19. Infusion therapy may be accompanied by: 1) allergic reactions; 2) pyrogenic reactions; 3) hypothermia; 4) pulmonary edema; 5) cardiac arrhythmias. 20. During infusion therapy control: 1) The general condition of the patient; 2) blood pressure; 3) heart rate; 4) CVP; 5) diuresis. 21. Specify the symptoms of acute volemic overload: 1) the tachycardia; 2) headache; 3) shortness of breath; 4) swelling of the neck veins; 5) reduction of blood pressure. 22. Specify the remedial measures necessary to address the acute volemic overload: 1) the termination of infusion; 2) increase the rate of infusion; 3) transfer of the patient in a sitting position;

4) The appointment of diuretics; 5) transfusion of red blood cells. 23. Hemodilution is achieved by: 1) transfusion of red blood cells; 2) infusion of dextran; 3) infusion of HES; 4) infusion of electrolyte solutions; 5) use of diuretic drugs. 24. Specify a colloidal plasma substitutes: 1) dextrans; 2) hydroxyethyl starch; 3) isotonic sodium chloride solution; 4) a hypertonic solution of sodium chloride; 5) glucose solutions. 25. Colloid infusion drugs have the ability to: 1) quickly remove toxins from the bloodstream; 2) carry blood gases; 3) to cause hemodilution; 4) to quickly stabilize the hemodynamics; 5) correct the electrolyte composition of blood. 26. Crystalloid infusion drugs have the ability to: 1) increase urine output; 2) carry blood gases; 3) to fill the volume of interstitial fluid; 4) to fill the volume of intracellular fluid; 5) correct the electrolyte composition of blood. 27. Solutions of starch: 1) increase the amount of interstitial fluid; 2) to quickly restore the BCC;

3) improve the microcirculation; 4) reduce the "capillary leak"; 5) do not have clinically significant effects on the hemostatic system. 28. With the infusion of solutions of potassium should be: 1) The use of concentrated solutions; 2) use the solutions at low concentrations; 3) enter the solution slowly drip; 4) to drive a jet solutions; 5) to normalize the urine after the infusion. 29. Hypovolaemia eliminate the introduction of solutions: 1) dextran; 2) amino acids; 3) hydroxyethyl starch; 4) crystalloid solutions; 5) eritromassy. The correct answers: 1). 1, 2, 3, 4. 2). 1, 2, 4, 5. 3). 1, 2, 4. 4). All. 5). 1, 2, 4. 6.) 4. 7). 1, 2, 3, 5. 8). 1 and 3. 4. 9). All. 10). 4. 11). 1, 2, 3, 5. 12). All. 13). 1, 2, 4. 14). All. 15). 2, 3, 5. 16). 1, 3, 5. 17). All. 18). 1, 2, 3, 4. 19). All. 20). All.

21). 1, 2, 3, 4. 22). 1, 3, 4. 23). 2, 3, 4. 24). 1 and 2. 25). 3 and 4. 26). 1, 3, 4, 5. 27). 2, 3, 4, 5. 28). 2, 3, 5. 29). 1, 3, 4. Clinical Oncology. 1. Specify the bodies, the most commonly affected, cancer: 1) light; 2) the colon; 3) the spleen; 4) mammary gland; 5) the prostate gland. 2. Specify the factors that contribute to the development of malignant tumors: 1) excessive consumption of canned foods; 2) viral infection; 3) smoking tobacco; 4) reduction of immunity; 5) chemical agents. 3. Specify the characteristics of malignant tumors: 1) The uncontrolled proliferation of cells; 2) Violation of cell differentiation; 3) intense growth of the tumor; 4) local invasion; 5) the presence of the capsule. 4. Specify the pathway of malignant tumors: 1) airborne; 2) lymphogenous; 3) hematogenous; 4) implantation

5) direct invasion. 5. Specify the bodies, the most commonly affected, metastatic cancer: 1) the stomach; 2) the liver; 3) the lungs; 4) the spleen; 5) of the bone. 6. Staging of malignant tumors based on the definition: 1) The size of the tumor; 2) the degree of lymph node involvement; 3) the presence or absence of distant metastases; 4) the size of distant metastases; 5) The period of the disease. 7. Specify the signs warning of the presence of the patient's tumor: 1) unmotivated w8 loss; 2) unexplained w8 gain; 3) changes in bowel movements; 4) changes in urination; 5) abnormal discharge from orifices. 8. For the syndrome of small signs of malignancy characterized by: 1) increased appetite; 2) loss of appetite; 3) increase in body w8; 4) w8 loss; 5) mental depression. 9. Organ-specific tumor markers are used to: 1) Screening of malignant diseases; 2) the establishment of the tumor; 3) determine the stage of disease; 4) monitoring the effectiveness of treatment; 5) determine the degree of

malignancy. 10. Endoscopic examinations allow us to determine: 1) The location of the tumor; 2) The size of the tumor; 3) The boundaries of destruction; 4) the anatomical type of tumor growth; 5) perform a biopsy. 11. Ray studies allow us to determine: 1) The location of the tumor; 2) The exact size of the primary tumor; 3) the degree of increase in regional lymph nodes; 4) presence of distant metastases; 5) involvement in the process of tumor adjacent anatomical structures. 12. Specify the indications for use of positron emission tomography: 1) a primary search of the tumor in the presence of clinical manifestations; 2) differential diagnosis of malignant and benign tumors; 3) The estimated prevalence of tumor; 4) The search for the primary tumor with metastases identified; 5) evaluation of the effectiveness of treatment. 13. Material for morphological verification of diagnosis is obtained by: 1) smears from the surface of the tumor; 2) puncture of the colon tumor with a needle; 3) fine-needle aspiration biopsy; 4) incisional biopsy; 5) ekstsizionnnoy biopsy. 14. Complex methods of diagnosis of tumors immunomorphological allow us

to determine: 1) type of tumor; 2) the degree of tumor differentiation; 3) factors, predictors of invasive and metastatic ability of epithelial tumors; 4) The molecular-biological and genetic prognostic factors of sensitivity of tumors to radiation therapy; 5), molecular biological and genetic prognostic factors of sensitivity of tumors to drug therapy. 15. Specify the clinical signs of incurable cancer patient: 1) jaundice; 2) ascites; 3) pleural effusion; 4) w8 loss; 5) pathological fracture. 16. To prevent the spread of cancer cells during surgery are used: 1) removal of the tumor with wide excision of surrounding healthy tissue; 2) cuts along the edge of the tumor; 3) early ligation of the blood and lymph vessels; 4) removal of the primary tumor en bloc with regional lymph collectors; 5) removal of regional lymph nodes after excision of the primary tumor. 17. Specify conditions required for the removal of metastases: 1) retained the primary tumor; 2) removed the primary tumor; 3) single metastases and localized; 4) multiple metastases and dissemination; 5) surgery can significantly extend the life of the patient. 18. Specify the typical complications of radiation therapy:

1) radiation burns and skin ulcers; 2) hearing loss; 3) cataract; 4) stricture of the intestine; 5) suppression of hematopoiesis. 19. Indicate contraindications to the use of radiation therapy: 1) anemia; 2) leukopenia; 3) leukocytosis; 4) thrombocytopenia; 5) cachexia. 20. Specify the typical side effects of chemotherapy: 1) leukopenia; 2) leukocytosis; 3) thrombocytopenia; 4) nausea; 5) loss of hair. 21. Contraindications to chemotherapy are: 1) the insensitivity of tumors to chemotherapy; 2) leukopenia; 3) thrombocytopenia; 4) a large mass of tumor tissue; 5) a small mass of tumor tissue. 22. Specify the factors affecting the prognosis of cancer: 1) The location of the tumor; 2) stage of the disease; 3) the degree of tumor differentiation; 4) The age of the patient; 5) The sex of the patient. 23. At the end of any period after the removal of a malignant tumor no recurrence of the disease allows us to consider a patient cured: 1) 1 year;

2) 2 years; 3) 3 years; 4) 4 years; 5) 5 years. The correct answers: 1). 1, 2, 4, 5. 2). All. 3). 1, 2, 3, 4. 4). 2, 3, 4, 5. 5). 2, 3, 5. 6.) 1. 2 and 3. 7). 1, 3, 4, 5. 8). 2, 4, 5. 9). 1, 2, 4. 10). All. 11). All. 12). All. 13). All. 14). All. 15). 1, 2, 3, 5. 16). 1, 3, 4. 17). 2, 3, 5. 18). 1, 3, 4, 5. 19). 1.2, 4, 5. 20). 1, 3, 4, 5. 21). 1. 2 and 3. 4. 22). All. 23). 5. Correction of the hemostatic system. 1. The function of the hemostatic system is provided by the interaction: 1) The vascular endothelium; 2) platelets; 3) red blood cells; 4) white blood cells; 5) plasma clotting factors. 2. Specify the organs and tissues that produce substances involved in the regulation of hemostasis:

1) the liver; 2) the spleen; 3) the heart; 4) bone marrow; 5) endothelium. 3. Endothelium highlights: 1) nitric oxide; 2) prostacyclin; 3) thrombomodulin; 4) fibrinogen; 5), tissue plasminogen activator. 4. Damage to the endothelium occurs when: 1) mechanical injury of the vessel; 2) the introduction of intravascular catheters; 3) the impact on the vascular wall of bacterial toxins; 4) the effects of nicotine on the vascular wall; 5) a high level of cholesterol. 5. Specify the physiological anticoagulants: 1) antithrombin-III; 2) protein C and S; 3) fibrinogen; 4) prostacyclin; 5) The nitric oxide. 6. When taking blood clotting adhere to the following principles: 1) fasting blood taken from a vein in siliconized needle with a syringe without a wide lumen; 2) The blood should be collected in vakuteyner, or a plastic tube containing an anticoagulant; 3) in patients receiving heparin, the blood taken before the next drug administration; 4) in patients receiving heparin, the

blood taken after drug administration; 5) The analysis must be performed within 2 hours after taking blood from a vein. 7. On the pathology of the hemostatic system includes: 1) frequent nosebleeds; 2) bleeding gums; 3) prolonged bleeding from cuts; 4) prolonged and heavy menstrual bleeding; 5) recurrent thrombophlebitis. 8. Status of vascular-platelet hemostasis is assessed by: 1) The bleeding time; 2) the number of platelets; 3) platelet adhesion; 4) the ability of platelets to aggregate; 5) since the formation of platelets. 9. During the initial investigation of coagulation homeostasis is determined by: 1) prothrombin time; 2) international normalized ratio; 3) activated partial thromboplastin time; 4) The content of fibrinogen; 5) The content of protein C and S. 10. For the diagnosis of pathological activation of the hemostatic system and define the contents in the blood: 1) thrombin-antithrombin complex-III; 2) soluble fibrin monomer complexes (SFMC); 3) D-dimer; 4) platelets; 5) the bleeding time. 11. The reasons for increased bleeding are:

1) thrombocytopenia; 2) a deficiency of vitamin K; 3) liver disease; 4) DIC; 5) anticoagulant therapy. 12. Increased bleeding with normal values of prothrombin test and activated partial thromboplastin time may be due to: 1) Factor XIII deficiency; 2) increase the activity of the fibrinolytic system; 3) reduce the number of platelets; 4) dysfunction of platelets; 5) reduce the level of fibrinogen. 13. Thrombocytopenia may be due to: 1) Primary disorders of bone marrow hematopoiesis; 2) HIV infection; 3) massive blood transfusions; 4) treatment of anticancer drugs; 5) treatment with heparin; 6) receiving high doses of alcohol. 14. Patients with thrombocytopenia should avoid: 1) surgery; 2) use of intramuscular injections; 3) endoscopic examinations; 4) taking non-steroidal antiinflammatory drugs; 5) receiving prednisolone. 15. To eliminate the use of increased bleeding: 1) fresh frozen plasma; 2) vitamin K; 3) vitamin C; 4) aminocaproic acid; 5) aprotenin. 16. Increased risk of thrombotic events

in: 1) thrombophilia; 2) large surgical interventions; 3) burns; 4) taking oral contraceptives; 5) malignancies. 17. Increased risk of thrombosis in patients undergoing implantation: 1) vascular catheter; 2) vascular stent; 3) vascular graft; 4) cava filter; 5) an artificial heart valve. 18. Increased risk of thrombotic events in patients suffering from: 1) hyperhomocysteinemia; 2) thrombocytopenia; 3) The antiphospholipid syndrome; 4) deficiency of antithrombin - III; 5) deficiency of protein C and S. 19. The survey aimed at the accurate diagnosis of the reasons for increasing thrombogenic potential of blood is performed at: 1) recurrent spontaneous abortions; 2) the development of acute thrombosis in individuals younger than 40 years; 3) family history of thromboembolism; 4) recurrent venous and arterial thrombosis; 5), thrombosis of unusual location. 20. Specify the drugs that prevent clots: 1) acetylsalicylic acid; 2) unfractionated heparin; 3) low molecular w8 heparin; 4) warfarin; 5) fibrinogen.

21. Indicate the benefits of low molecular w8 heparin to unfractionated heparin: 1) a lower incidence of bleeding complications; 2) a more prolonged effect; 3) lack of need for frequent laboratory monitoring; 4) a lower price; 5) a more rapid action. 22. Specify a complication of treatment with heparin: 1) bleeding; 2) thrombocytopenia; 3) leukopenia; 4) osteoporosis; 5), necrosis of the skin. 23. The features of therapy with indirect anticoagulants are: 1) The treatment has no effect "on the tip of the needle"; 2) therapy is not quickly controlled; 3) the treatment can be canceled immediately; 4) patients must be properly build your diet; 5) regular laboratory monitoring. 24. The index of the international normalized ratio (INR) in the treatment of indirect anticoagulants should be: 1) less than 1.0; 2) 1.0 - 1.5; 3) 1.5 - 2.0; 4) 2.0 - 3, 5; 5) higher than 3, 5. 25. The features of anticoagulant treatment are: 1) treated with direct anticoagulants; 2) treated with indirect anticoagulants; 3) by changing the drug to their co-

administration for 4-5 days; 4) direct treatment with anticoagulants end gradually reducing the dose; 5) The treatment of indirect anticoagulants end immediately. 26. Specify indications for fibrinolytic drugs: 1) prevention of acute thrombosis; 2) pulmonary embolism; 3) acute myocardial infarction; 4) acute thrombosis of arteries of extremities; 5) chronic postthrombotic occlusion of blood vessels. 27. Specify absolute contraindications to thrombolysis: 1) arterial hypertension with systolic blood pressure above 180 mm Hg; 2) the recent trauma of the skull or spinal cord; 3) the early postoperative period; 4) The delivery, in the preceding 2 weeks; 5) bleeding transferred in the previous 3 months. The correct answers: 1). 1, 2, 5. 2). 1, 4, 5. 3). 1, 2, 3, 5. 4). That's right. 5). 1, 2, 4, 5. 6.) 1 and 2. 3, 5. 7). That's right. 8). 1, 2, 3, 4. 9). 1, 2, 3. 10). 1 2 and 3. 11). That's right. 12). 1, 2, 3, 4. 13). That's right. 14). 1, 2, 3, 4. 15). 1, 2, 4, 5.

16). That's right. 17). That's right. 18). 1, 3, 4, 5. 19). That's right. 20). 1, 2, 3, 4. 21). 1, 2, 3. 22). 1, 2, 4, 5. 23). That's right. 24). 4. 25). 1, 3, 4, 5. 26). 2, 3, 4. 27). That's right. Bleeding. 1. The causes of bleeding are: 1) mechanical damage to the vessel wall. 2) the destructive changes of the vessel wall, 3) purulent fusion of the vessel, 4) enzymatic melting vessel 5), blood coagulation disorders. 2. Protective and adaptive reactions to acute blood loss include: 1) the narrowing of blood vessels; 2) vasodilation; 3) an increase in urine output; 4) an increase in the intensity of the heart; 5) involvement in the vascular bed interstitial fluid. 3. Specify the types of internal bleeding: 1) into the chest cavity; 2) in the abdominal cavity; 3) in the intestinal lumen; 4) in the intermuscular space; 5) in the uterine cavity. 4. The severity of the patient with bleeding depends on:

1) The amount of blood loss; 2) the rate of blood loss; 3) concomitant diseases of the heart; 4) related lung diseases 5) related gastrointestinal diseases. 5. The severity of the patient with bleeding estimated on the basis of: 1) heart rate; 2) blood pressure; 3) the rate of urine; 4) The level of CVP; 5) the level of hemoglobin. 6. Common signs of blood loss include: 1) weakness, 2) dizziness; 3) pale skin; 4) tachycardia, 5), vomiting of color "coffee grounds". 7. For bleeding is characterized by: 1) reduction of blood pressure; 2) increase in blood pressure; 3) decrease in hemoglobin level; 4) increase in hemoglobin level; 5) increase in the rate of urine. 8. Tarry stools (melaen1) indicate bleeding from: 1) of the stomach; 2) duodenal ulcer; 3) of the colon; 4) the rectum; 5) The spleen. 9. Vomiting color "coffee grounds" refers to bleeding from: 1) of the stomach; 2) the jejunum; 3) of the ileum; 4) of the colon; 5) of the rectum.

10. Bloody stools (haematochezi1) indicate bleeding from: 1) of the stomach; 2) duodenal ulcer; 3) of the colon; 4) the rectum; 5) of the uterus. 11. Hemoptysis indicate bleeding from: 1) of the lungs; 2) of the esophagus; 3) of the stomach; 4) of the duodenum; 5) of the nose. 12. For the diagnosis of gastrointestinal bleeding using: 1) gastroduodenoscopy: 2) a colonoscopy; 3) ultrasound; 4) X-ray of the stomach; 5) Analysis of gastric juice. 13. For the diagnosis of bleeding into the pleural cavity is used: 1) chest radiography; 2) bronchoscopy; 3) puncture of pleural cavity; 4) computed tomography; 5) ultrasound. 14. For the diagnosis of intraabdominal bleeding is used: 1) ultrasound; 2) laparoscopy; 3) the gastroscopy; 4) colonoscopy; 5) survey radiographs of the abdomen. 15. To stop bleeding, use: 1) a pressure bandage: 2) tamponade the wound;

3) the finger pressing the vessel; 4) the imposition of tow; 5) ligation of the vessel. 16. The goal of treatment of acute blood loss is: 1) filling the bcc; 2) increasing the capacity of the blood coagulation; 3) improvement of microcirculation; 4) filling of the interstitial fluid; 5) increase in blood oxygen capacity. 17. To make up for using BCC: 1) isotonic sodium chloride solution; 2) The solutions of starch; 3) dextrans; 4) eritrotstnuyu mass; 5), fresh frozen plasma. 18. In acute blood loss after the removal of CBV deficit transfusion of donor red blood cells is carried out in the presence of: 1) the tachycardia; 2) hypotension; 3) the level of hemoglobin below 60 g / l; 4) reducing the oxygen content in venous blood; 5) extraction of oxygen from the blood of more than 50%. 19. For the treatment of massive blood loss using: 1) red blood cells; 2) fresh frozen plasma; 3) colloidal plasma expanders; 4) crystalloid plasma expanders; 5) platelet. 20. Conducting blood reinfusion, streamed into the abdominal cavity, possibly in the case of a break:

1) the spleen; 2) the small intestine; 3) aortic aneurysm; 4) of the uterine tube; 5) the ovary. Correct answers. 1). All. 2). 1, 4, 5. 3). 1, 2, 4. 4). 1, 2, 3, 4. 5). All. 6.) 1, 2, 3, 4. 7). 1 and 3. 8). 1 and 2. 9). 1. 10). 3 and 4. 11). 1. 12). 1 and 2. 13). 1. 3, 4, 5. 14). 1 and 2. 15). All. 16). All. 17). 1. 2. 3. 18). All. 19). All. 20). 1, 3, 4, 5. Laboratory and instrumental methods of diagnosis of surgical diseases. 1. The reduction of hemoglobin in the blood occurs when: 1) bleeding; 2) inflammation; 3) dehydration; 4) intoxication; 5) iron deficiency in the body. 2. Increased white blood cell count is characteristic of: 1) bleeding; 2) inflammation;

3) hydration; 4) dehydration; 5), digestive disorders. 3. The presence of a significant number of red blood cells in urine is characteristic of: 1) renal colic; 2) kidney tumor; 3) tumors of the bladder; 4) damage to the kidneys; 5), inflammation of the urinary tract. 4. For renal failure characterized by an increase in blood levels of: 1) creatinine; 2) urea; 3) potassium; 4) bilirubin; 5) glucose. 5. For liver disease characterized by an increase in blood levels of: 1) AST; 2) ALT; 3) glucose; 4) albumin; 5) amylase. 6. For jaundice characterized by an increase in blood levels of: 1) direct bilirubin; 2) increasing the level of alkaline phosphatase; 3) amylase; 4) albumin; 5) glucose. 7. To slow the clotting of blood lead: 1) liver disease; 2) jaundice; 3) prolonged treatment with antibiotics; 4) the treatment of cancer therapies; 5) receiving anticoagulants.

5) diagnosis of the disease. 8. The hemostatic system reflect: 1) The bleeding time; 2) the number of platelets; 3) the level of hemoglobin; 4) erythrocyte sedimentation rate; 5) the level of white blood cells. 9. Increased procalcitonin levels characteristic: 1) acute thrombosis; 2) the cancer process; 3) sepsis; 4) disseminated intravascular coagulation; 5) PTE. 10. To assess the functional status of thyroid gland determine the content in the blood: 1) thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH); 2) free thyroxine (St. T4); 3) triiodothyronine (T3); 4) the ACT; 5) ALT. 11. Blood samples for laboratory testing should be performed: 1) on an empty stomach; 2) immediately after a meal; 3) to receive drugs; 4) during infusion therapy; 5) after a bowel movement. 12. Microbiological studies of biological fluids, you can: 1) to determine the species composition of microflora; 2) the sensitivity of microorganisms to antibiotics; 3) select the optimal mode of treatment; 4) determine the status of the patient's immune system; 13. An ultrasound scan will identify: 1) the size of focal lesions in parenchymal organs; 2) the thickness of the walls of hollow organs; 3) presence of abnormal structures in the lumen of the hollow body; 4) accumulation of fluid in the cavities of the body; 5) infiltrates and abscesses in the soft tissues and the abdominal cavity. 14. Ultrasound is characterized by: 1) high accuracy; 2) low accuracy; 3) complete safety; 4) a significant effect on the body; 5) The speed of implementation. 15. The chest radiograph reveals: 1) fractures of the ribs; 2) pulmonary disease; 3) the presence of gas in the pleural cavity; 4) the presence of fluid in the pleural cavity; 5) found in the thoracic cavity hollow organs of the abdominal cavity. 16. In carrying out chest X-ray attention to: 1) the presence of focal lesions of lung tissue; 2) partial or complete "blackout" of lung field; 3) a shift of the mediastinum; 4) expansion of the mediastinum; 5) the integrity of the ribs. 17. Abdominal X-ray survey performed for suspected: 1) perforation of a hollow body;

2) intestinal obstruction; 3) renal colic; 4) gastrointestinal bleeding; 5), inflammation of the abdominal cavity. 18. Endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography use for diagnosis: 1) concretions in the bile ducts; 2) concretions in the gall bladder; 3) acute pancreatitis; 4) acute cholecystitis; 5), bile duct strictures. 19. A common complication of endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography is: 1) acute cholecystitis; 2) acute pancreatitis; 3) acute gastritis; 4) gastrointestinal bleeding; 5), perforation of the stomach. 20. X-ray angiography is used to diagnose: 1) The degree of narrowing of the arteries; 2) the localization and extent of occlusion of the arteries; 3) aneurysm of the aorta and large arteries; 4) thrombosis of the inferior vena cava; 5) PTE. 21. As the access performance of arteriography is used: 1) the femoral artery; 2) brachial artery; 3) The external carotid artery; 4) the radial artery; 5) popliteal artery.

22. X-ray computed tomography to diagnose: 1) the primary tumor; 2) tumor metastasis; 3) The focus of destruction; 4) aneurysm of the vessel; 5) The limited accumulation of fluid. 23. Magnetic resonance imaging is used for a detailed study of anatomical structures: 1) of the brain; 2) of the spine; 3) of the abdominal and thoracic cavities; 4) vessels; 5) of the joints; 6), bile and pancreatic ducts. 24. Magnetic resonance imaging allows you to: 1) identify small focal lesions of the soft tissues; 2) to quantify the movement of water molecules across cell membranes; 3) obtain information about blood flow at the capillary level; 4) determine the concentration of metabolites; 5) to visualize the course of conducting pathways in the brain. 25. In conducting magnetic resonance imaging the patient must leave the outside MR scanner: 1) hour; 2) cordless; 3) coin; 4) removable dentures; 5) pins. 26. Contraindications to magnetic resonance imaging are the presence in the body of the patient:

1) artificial pacemaker; 2) intracranial ferromagnetic haemostatic clips; 3) ferromagnetic intraorbital foreign bodies; 4) implants, or the average of the inner ear; 5) contact lenses. 27. Dynamic hepatobiliscintigraphy reveals: 1) The excretory function of the liver; 2) focal liver lesions; 3) the presence of "disabled" the gall bladder; 4) the presence of concretions in the gall bladder; 5) violation of the evacuation of bile from the bile ducts. 28. Radionuclide thyroid scan to determine: 1) The size of the thyroid gland; 2) The form of the thyroid gland; 3) presence of focal lesions in the thyroid gland; 4) the functional activity of focal lesions; 5) retrosternal goiter. 29. Bone scintigraphy is performed to diagnose: 1) primary bone tumors; 2) bone metastases; 3) osteomyelitis; 4) the nature of vague bone pain. 5) a primary diagnosis of fracture. 30. Positron emission tomography is used to diagnose: 1) zones of ischemia; 2) zones of the primary tumor; 3) The incidence of metastatic disease;

4) the degree of malignancy; 5) fractures. 31. Bronchoscopy is used to: 1) diagnosis of inflammatory lesions of the bronchi; 2) diagnosis of neoplastic lesions of the bronchi; 3) The diagnosis of pneumonia; 4) diagnosis of hemothorax; 5) The rehabilitation tracheobronchial tree. 32. Gastroscopy reveals: 1) stomach cancer at an early stage of development; 2) erosive lesions of the gastric mucosa; 3) a stomach ulcer; 4) polyps of the stomach; 5), gastric bleeding; 6), perforation of the stomach; 7) foreign bodies in the stomach. 33. Colonoscopy reveals: 1) colon cancer; 2) polyp of the colon; 3) diverticula of the colon; 4) the source and localization of gastrointestinal bleeding; 5) perform a biopsy of tumors of the colon. 34. Diagnostic laparoscopy is used for: 1) The acute inflammatory diseases of the abdominal cavity; 2) damage to the abdominal cavity; 3) gastrointestinal bleeding; 4) identification of foreign bodies in the gastrointestinal tract; 5) The incidence of malignant tumors. 35. Laparoscopy can lead to: 1) damage to the intestine;

2) intraperitoneal bleeding; 3) gastrointestinal bleeding; 4) disruption of respiratory function; 5) deterioration of the function of the cardiovascular system; The correct answers: 1). 1, 4, 5. 2). 2. 3). 1 and 2. 3 and 4. 4). 1, 2, 3. 5). 1 and 2. 6.) 1 and 2. 7). All. 8). 1 and 2. 9). 3. 10). 1, 2, 3. 11). 1 and 3. 12). 1, 2, 3, 5. 13). All. 14). 1, 3, 5. 15). All. 16). All. 17). 1, 2, 3. 18). 1, 5. 19). 2. 20). All. 21). 1 and 2. 22). All. 23). All. 24). All. 25). All. 26). 1, 2, 3. 4. 27). 1, 3, 5. 28). All. 29). 1, 2, 3, 4. 30). 1, 2, 3, 4. 31). 1, 2, 5. 32). All 33). All. 34). 1, 2, 5. 35). 1, 2, 4, 5. The treatment of pain.

1. Pain: 1) warn about violations of the body; 2) causes physical suffering; 3) causes mental suffering; 4) contribute to the progression of physical illness; 5) inhibits the mechanisms of immunity. 2. Pain receptors are located: 1) in the adventitia of small vessels; 2) in the endoneurium; 3) in the connective tissue; 4) in the skin; 5) in the muscles. 3. Pain occurs when: 1) personal injury; 2) inflammation; 3) ischemia; 4) stretching of tissues; 5) spasm. 4. The pain may be accompanied by: 1) an increase in blood pressure; 2) tachycardia; 3) nausea; 4) drowsiness; 5) sweating. 5. For chronic pain is characterized by: 1) The duration of less than 3 months; 2) duration of more than 3 months; 3) the monotony; 4) diffuse; 5) a combination of mental depression 6. The key principles of the treatment of pain are: 1) elimination of the causes of pain; 2) The appointed agent must comply with the intensity of pain; 3) The appointed agent should be safe

for the patient; 4) should not be used monotherapy with narcotic analgesics; 5) The individual selection of the dose and duration of treatment. 7. To eliminate the use of pain: 1) opening and draining the source of infection; 2) restoration of blood flow in the ischemic area; 3) The evacuation of excess contents of hollow organs; 4) systemic analgesic drugs; 5) local anesthetics. 8. The characteristic features of nonnarcotic analgesics are: 1) a moderate analgesic activity; 2) strong analgesic activity; 3) does not depress the respiratory and cough centers; 4) depress the respiratory and cough centers; 5) do not cause euphoria, mental and physical dependence. 9. Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs: 1) have a moderate analgesic effect; 2) cause indigestion; 3) cause gastrointestinal bleeding; 4) have nephrotoxicity; 5) cause psychic and physical dependence. 10. For narcotic analgesics, the following characteristics: 1) strong analgesic activity; 2) cause the development of addiction and the need to increase the dose to achieve pain relief; 3) depress respiration and cough reflex;

4) nausea and vomiting; 5) cause euphoria. 11. Indications for use of local anesthesia are: 1) the impossibility of post-operative monitoring of patients in the outpatient practice; 2) expressed in human liver; 3) respiratory failure; 4) surgical intervention on organs of the chest cavity; 5) surgery on the abdominal organs. 12. Contraindications to the use of local anesthesia are: 1) the psycho-emotional lability of the patient; 2) early childhood; 3) inflammation of tissues in the area of the proposed introduction of an anesthetic; 4) increased sensitivity to anesthetic used; 5) hypotension. 13. There are following types of conduction anesthesia: 1) The stem; 2) pleksusnaya; 3) paravertebral; 4) epidural anesthesia; 5) spinal anesthesia. 14. Spinal anesthesia may be complicated by: 1) The cessation of breathing; 2) headache; 3) decrease in blood pressure; 4) elevated blood pressure; 5) meningitis. 15. The advantages of local anesthesia over general anesthesia

are: 1) a high degree of safety; 2) maintaining a clear conscience; 3) Early activation of the patient after surgery; 4) a lower intensity of pain after surgery; 5) the absence of postoperative nausea and vomiting. The correct answers: 1). All. 2). All. 3). All. 4). 1, 2, 3, 5. 5). 2, 3, 4, 5. 6.) All. 7). All. 8). 1, 3, 5. 9). 1, 2, 3, 4. 10). All. 11). 1, 2, 3. 12). All. 13). All. 14). 1. 2. 4 and 5. 15). All. Monitoring of patients after surgery. 1. Functional reorganization in a patient after surgery is caused by exposure: 1) The operative trauma; 2) anesthesia; 3) The blood loss; 4) pain; 5) psychological experiences. 2. In the early postoperative period is activated: 1) basal metabolism; 2) the heart; 3) of the gastrointestinal tract; 4) of the hemostatic system;

5) The utilization of glucose in the tissues. 3. For the early postoperative period is characterized by: 1) the tachycardia; 2) nausea; 3) lack of appetite; 4) the weakening of the peristalsis of the bowel; 5) increase in body temperature; 6), decreased urine output. 4. In the first 2-3 hours after the mandatory control operations are subject to the following indicators: 1) the level of consciousness; 2) the adequacy of breathing; 3) blood pressure; 4) the possibility of active movements on command; 5) presence of nausea and vomiting; 6) The discharge of drainage. 5. The reason for lowering blood pressure after surgery is: 1) the action of drugs used for anesthesia; 2) bleeding; 3) dehydration; 4) heart failure; 5) renal failure. 6. For the normalization of blood pressure after surgery are used: 1) infusion therapy; 2) glucocorticoids; 3) medications that increase vascular tone and myocardial contractility; 4) vasodilators; 5) diuretics. 7. Early postoperative complications are:

1) pneumonia; 2) acute coronary syndrome, 3) pulmonary embolism; 4) peritonitis; 5) bleeding. 8. Monitoring of patients in the early postoperative period include indicators: 1) of the respiratory system; 2) The activity of the cardiovascular system; 3) of the gastrointestinal tract; 4) water and electrolyte balance; 5) The rate of urine. 9. Causes of impaired consciousness in the early postoperative period are: 1) the action of drugs; 2) acute ischemic stroke; 3) The chronic cerebral insufficiency; 4) severe intoxication; 5) hypoglycemia; 6) The alcohol withdrawal. 10. The causes of dyspnea in the early postoperative period are: 1) pneumonia; 2) pneumothorax; 3) pulmonary embolism; 4) heart failure; 5) reduction of BCC. 11. Causes of pale skin in the early postoperative period are: 1) bleeding; 2) acute myocardial infarction; 3) hypovolaemia; 4) pneumonia; 5) PTE. 12. The causes of cyanosis in the early postoperative period are: 1) pulmonary embolism;

2) pneumonia; 3) pneumothorax; 4) bleeding; 5) festering wound. 13. The reasons for tachycardia in the early postoperative period are: 1) bleeding; 2) reduction of BCC; 3) acute myocardial infarction; 4) pneumonia; 5) peritonitis. 14. Causes of hyperthermia in the postoperative period are: 1) bleeding; 2) festering wound; 3) pneumonia; 4) urinary tract infection; 5), catheter infection. 15. The causes of vomiting in the postoperative period are: 1) The paresis of the gastrointestinal tract; 2) festering wound; 3) peritonitis; 4) The intra-abdominal bleeding; 5), gastric bleeding. 16. Causes of bloating in the postoperative period are: 1) festering wound; 2) gastrointestinal bleeding; 3) peritonitis; 4) water and electrolyte disturbances; 5) mechanical intestinal obstruction. 17. The reasons for reducing the volume of urine in the postoperative period are: 1) reduction of the bcc 2) increased CBV; 3) decrease in blood pressure;

4) increase in blood pressure; 5) renal failure; 18. Causes of leukocytosis in the postoperative period are: 1) bleeding; 2) festering wound; 3) pneumonia; 4) peritonitis; 5) reduction of BCC. 19. The reasons for increasing central venous pressure in the postoperative period are: 1) pulmonary embolism; 2) heart failure; 3) hypervolemia; 4) hypovolemia; 5) bleeding. 20. For the prevention of pulmonary complications after surgery the patient is prescribed: 1) breathing exercises; 2) massages; 3) pain medications; 4) raise the head end of the bed; 5) lower the head end of the bed. 21. To reduce the frequency of postoperative infectious complications result in: 1) wash the wound; 2) early removal of drains and probes; 3) early removal of intravenous catheters; 4) the daily change of dressings on the wound; 5) increase the period of postoperative hospital stay. The correct answers: 1). All. 2). 1, 2, 4.

3). All. 4). All. 5). 1, 2, 3, 4. 6.) 1, 2, 3. 7). All. 8). All. 9). All. 10). 1, 2, 3. 4. 11). 1, 2, 3. 12). 1 and 2. 3. 13). All. 14). 2, 3, 4, 5. 15). 1, 3, 5. 16). 3, 4, 5. 17). 1, 3, 5. 18). 2, 3, 4. 19). 1, 2, 3. 20). 1, 2, 3, 4. 21). 1, 2, 3. Violations of the arterial blood flow. 1. Disturbances of blood flow resulted in damage: 1) of the heart; 2) of the brain; 3) kidney; 4) of the intestine; 5) limbs 6) the vestibular apparatus. 2. Diseases, leading to a violation of arterial blood flow, are: 1) hypertension; 2) atherosclerosis; 3) unspecific aortoarteriit; 4) thromboangiitis obliterans; 5) fibro-muscular dysplasia. 3. Narrowing of the arteries leads to: 1) reduction in perfusion pressure below the stenosis; 2) reduce the volume of blood flow velocity;

3) an increase in the volumetric flow rate; 4) The deterioration of the microcirculation; 5) breach of metabolism. 4. Manifestations of chronic reduction of blood flow in coronary arteries are: 1) chest pain on exertion; 2) deterioration of cardiac function; 3) the normal function of the heart; 4) ECG changes typical of myocardial ischemia; 5) the absence of changes in the ECG. 5. Manifestations of a sudden cessation of blood flow in coronary arteries are: 1) a long bout of pain in the chest; 2) ECG changes typical of myocardial necrosis; 3) the absence of changes in the ECG; 4) increased activity of creatine kinase-MB and tropanina; 5) decrease in activity of creatine kinase-MB and tropanina. 6. Manifestations of chronic reduction of blood flow in the carotid arteries are: 1) headache; 2) memory impairment; 3) dizziness; 4) hearing loss and ringing in the ears; 5) incoordination. 7. Manifestations of acute disorders of blood flow in the carotid arteries are: 1) violation of the motor function of the muscles on the contralateral side; 2) violation of the sensitivity on the contralateral side;

3) violation of the speech; 4) absence of speech disorders. 5), transient blindness, eye on the affected side. 8. Manifestations of reduced blood flow through the vertebral arteries are: 1) fainting; 2) dizziness, nausea or vomiting; 3) poor coordination of movements; 4) noise, congestion, and ringing in the ears; 5), visual disturbances. 9. Manifestations of reduced blood flow to the renal artery are: 1) The headaches, 2) high blood pressure; 3) low blood pressure; 4) renal failure; 5) systolic murmur in the projection of the renal arteries. 10. Manifestations of reduced blood flow in celiac and superior mesenteric arteries are: 1) pain in the upper stomach before a meal; 2) pain in the upper abdomen after eating; 3) w8 loss; 4) increase in body w8; 5) bloating. 11. Manifestations of acute cessation of blood flow in mesenteric arteries are: 1) intense pain in the abdomen; 2) a weak stomach pain; 3) paresis of the intestine; 4) high lekotsitoz; 5) the absence of leukocytosis. 12. Manifestations of reduced blood

flow through the arteries of the lower limbs are: 1) pain in the calf muscles when walking; 2) reduction of pain in the calf muscles when walking; 3) the absence of pulsation of the arteries of the foot; 4) a distinct pulsation of the arteries of the foot; 5) flushing of the skin of the foot. 13. For the diagnosis of blood flow through the arteries is used: 1) auscultation of vessels; 2) Ultrasonic angioscanning; 3) survey radiographs; 4) X-ray computed angiography; 5) magnetic resonance angiography. 14. For thromboangiitis obliterans and nonspecific aorto-arteritis is characterized by: 1) The increase in cholesterol levels; 2) positive for C-reactive protein; 3) a negative reaction to C-reactive protein; 4) increasing levels of immunoglobulin G and M; 5) reduction of immunoglobulins G and M. 15. Combined therapy of chronic obliterating arterial diseases based on: 1) prevention of acute thrombosis; 2) slowing down of the basic disease process; 3) decrease in systemic blood pressure; 4) improving microcirculation; 5) improvement of metabolism in the affected area. 16. Patients with atherosclerotic

lesions of arterial vessels should: 1) complete cessation of smoking; 2) nutrition; 3) receiving antiplatelet agents; 4) taking antispasmodics; 5) taking statins. 17. Specify the surgery, improve arterial blood flow: 1) Bypass; 2) prosthetics; 3) endarterectomy; 4) percutaneous transluminal angioplasty 5) stenting. 18. Reconstructive surgery on the arteries may be subject to: 1) The segmental nature of the occlusion; 2) total occlusion of regional arterial bed; 3) patency of the vascular bed distal to the occlusion; 4) reversible dysfunction of the affected organ; 5) irreversible dysfunction of the affected organ. 19. Complications of reconstructive surgery on the arteries are: 1) bleeding; 2) acute thrombosis, or stent graft; 3) infection of the prosthesis or stent; 4) restenosis in the field of vascular anastomoses; 5) embolism of the distal arterial plaque fragments. 20. Patients who had undergone reconstructive operations on the arteries to life: 1) diet; 2) Do not smoke;

3) taking antispasmodic drugs; 4) to take antiplatelet drugs; 5) avoid physical exertion. The correct answers: 1). All. 2). 2, 3, 4, 5. 3). 1, 2, 4, 5. 4). 1, 2, 4. 5). 1, 2, 4. 6.) All. 7). 1, 2, 3, 5. 8). All. 9). 1, 2, 4, 5. 10). 2, 3, 5. 11). 1. 3 and 4. 12). 1 and 3. 13). 1, 2, 4, 5. 14). 2, 4. 15). 1, 2, 4, 5. 16). 1, 2, 3. 5. 17). All. 18). 1, 3, 4. 19). All. 20). 1, 2, 4. Violations of the venous blood flow 1. Specify diseases that are accompanied by a violation of regional venous blood flow: 1) varicose veins of the lower extremities; 2) the hemorrhoids; 3) acute thrombosis of the veins; 4) the varicocele; 5) cirrhosis of the liver; 6) varicose veins of the pelvis. 2. Specify the veins which have valves: 1) The superficial veins of the lower extremities; 2) the deep veins of the lower

extremities; 3) perforating veins of leg; 4) iliac vein; 5) the lower vena Vienna. 3. Venous return of blood to the heart is provided by: 1) The suction effect of the chest during inspiration; 2) the musculo-venous pump of leg; 3) reduction of the left ventricle; 4) reduction of the left atrium; 5) an increase in pressure in the abdominal cavity. 4. The development of acute venous thrombosis contribute: 1) immobilization of the patient; 2) the early activation of the patient; 3) the presence of a catheter into the vein; 4) thrombophilia; 5) The use of oral contraceptives. 5. Acute venous thrombosis leads to: 1) disturbance of microcirculation; 2) pulmonary embolism; 3) destruction of the valves in the vein; 4) increased blood pressure; 5) scarring of the vein wall. 6. Specify the symptoms of acute venous thrombosis: 1) local edema; 2) arching pain; 3) cyanosis; 4) dysfunction of the body; 5) PTE. 7. For the diagnosis of acute venous thrombosis using: 1) auscultation of vessels; 2) Ultrasonic angioscanning; 3) X-ray contrast phlebography;

4) an overview of X-rays; 5) angioscopy. 8. Signs of thrombosis in angioscanning are: 1) direct visualization of the thrombus; 2) the compressibility of the vein wall with mild compression of the sensor; 3) expansion of the distal segment of the vein; 4) narrowing of the distal segment of the vein; 5) the absence of phase character of blood flow in the performance of functional tests. 9. Acute thrombosis seen on the radiograph: 1) the lack of contrasting veins; 2) contrast enhancement veins; 3) contrast the precipice; 4) defect contrast; 5) presence of calcifications in the lumen of the vein. 10. In the treatment of acute venous thrombosis using: 1) the exalted position of limbs; 2) immobilization of the limb; 3) hot compress; 4) elastic compression; 5) anticoagulants. 11. Symptom of thrombophlebitis of superficial veins is: 1) a pronounced swelling of the limbs; 2) painful seal along the vein; 3) redness along the vein; 4) absence of distal pulses of the arteries; 5) increased distal arterial pulsation. 12. In the treatment of acute thrombophlebitis of superficial veins

are used: 1) antibiotics; 2) non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs; 3) ointment packs; 4) gel containing heparin; 5) the indirect anticoagulants. 13. Migratory thrombophlebitis occurs when: 1) of malignant tumors; 2) systemic collagenosis; 3) diseases of the blood; 4) thromboangiitis obliterans (Buerger's disease); 5) thrombophilia. 14. Clinical manifestations of chronic venous insufficiency are: 1) a feeling of heaviness in the limbs; 2) cooling the skin limbs; 3) local hyperpigmentation of the skin of leg; 4) swelling of the leg; 5) varicose veins. 15. In the treatment of chronic venous insufficiency using: 1) correction of lifestyle; 2) elastic compression; 3) pharmacotherapy; 4) sclerotherapy; 5) surgery. 16. Patients with chronic venous insufficiency is recommended: 1) to remain seated and upright position; 2) avoid exposure to elevated temperatures; 3) do not wear high heels; 4) the daily douche to the feet; 5) avoid taking hormonal contraceptives.

17. Elastic compression of the lower extremities: 1) prevents the stretching of the veins; 2) improves the venous valves; 3) reduces the swelling of the tissues; 4) prevents the formation of blood clots; 5) no complications. 18. The advantages of medical compression hosiery compared with elastic bandages are: 1) does not require special training to use; 2) does not require a constant correction of bandages; 3) creates more favorable conditions for water and thermal balance of the skin; 4) has high aesthetic properties; 5) has a lower price. 19. Drug therapy of chronic venous insufficiency can: 1) to reduce venous pressure; 2) to improve venous tone; 3) to improve the flow of lymph; 4) improve the microcirculation; 5) eliminate the inflammation. 20. The indications for surgical treatment of chronic venous insufficiency are: 1) a pronounced varicose syndrome; 2) The trophic disorders of the skin; 3) a feeling of heaviness in the legs; 4) recurrent venous ulcers; 5) recurrent thrombophlebitis. 21. Contraindications to sclerotherapy are: 1) acute thrombosis; 2) bronchial asthma;

3) The hormonal oral contraceptives; 4) diabetes mellitus; 5) chronic arterial insufficiency. The correct answers: 1). All. 2). 1, 2, 3. 3). 1, 2, 3. 4). 1, 3, 4, 5. 5). 1, 2, 3, 5. 6.) All. 7). 2 and 3. 8). 1, 3, 5. 9). 1, 3, 4. 10). 1, 4. 5. 11). 2, 3. 12). 2, 4. 13). All. 14). 1, 3, 4, 5. 15). All. 16). 2, 3, 4, 5. 17). All. 18). 1. 2, 3, 4. 19). 2. 3, 4, 5. 20). 1 2, 4, 5. 21). All Necrotizing soft tissue infection. 1. Characteristic features of necrotizing soft tissue infections are: 1) a large area of destruction; 2) the failure of several levels of the soft tissues; 3) the rapid generalization of infection; 4) weak intoxication; 5) The high mortality rate. 2. Necrotic soft tissue infections occur when: 1) stab wounds; 2) animal bites; 3) injection of substitutes; 4) severe traumatic injuries;

5) gunshot wounds. 3. The development of necrotizing infection contributes to: 1) The good message of the wound cavity with the external environment; 2) a bad message to the wound cavity with the external environment; 3) a deep wound channel; 4) poor circulation in the area of inflammation; 5) the presence in the wound of nonviable tissue. 4. Anaerobic infection from purulent infection is defined by: 1) distinct, rapidly spreading swelling of the tissues; 2) the absence of congestion; 3) the intensity of pain, arching; 4) reduction of local temperature; 5) crepitation tissues. 5. The features of necrotizing infections of treatment are: 1) The performance of surgical intervention as early as possible; 2) the performance of surgery through small incisions; 3) The maximum possible necrectomy; 4) The layer-wound closure; 5) The wound is not sutured. The correct answers: 1). 1, 2, 3, 5. 2). All. 3). 2, 3, 4, 5. 4). All. 5). 1, 3, 5.

for patients with surgical diseases: 1) first aid; 2) outpatient care; 3) patient care; 4) special care; 5) high-tech help. 2. During the initial examination suffered a survey aimed at identifying the violation: 1) the airway; 2) breathing; 3) blood flow; 4) digestion; 5) urination. 3. During the secondary examination of affected survey aimed at identifying the damage: 1) head; 2) of the cervical spine; 3) the abdominal cavity; 4) the musculoskeletal system; 5) the nervous system. 4. The work includes the surgeon's clinic: 1) The daily initial reception of patients; 2) Seen heavy surgical patients at home; 3) The medical examination of surgical patients; 4) preoperative assessment of patients; 5) The performance of small transactions; 6) follow-up care of patients operated on in hospital. 5. Indicate contraindications to outpatient surgical procedures: 1) serious co-morbidities; 2) operations with an expected

Organization of surgical care. 1. Specify the types of medical care

substantial loss of blood; 3) the operation, after which the need to conduct long-term infusion therapy; 4) Operation with severe pain in the postoperative period; 5) inability to provide adequate postoperative monitoring. 6. Patients operated on an outpatient basis should be aware of: 1) possible complications of surgery; 2) the means of anesthesia; 3) caring for a wound; 4) indications for urgent treatment to a surgeon; 5) The coordinates of the surgeon. 7. Indicate the symptoms that require emergency treatment to the doctor after the surgery: bleeding; 1) prolonged nausea and vomiting; 2) a body temperature over 38 0C; 3) long nekupiruemaya pain; 4) urinary retention; 5) excessive redness and discharge from the wound. 8. Specify the function of the receiving department: 1) the primary medical examination received by patients; 2) the performance of laboratory and instrumental investigations; 3) correction of homeostasis; 4) The decontamination of patients; 5) The registration of medical records. 9. In the surgical wards of the hospital performed: 1) being treated; 2) further examination of patients; 3) preoperative preparation, 4) ligation of the patients;

5) treatment in the postoperative period. 10. In the specialized surgical departments perform operations on: 1) the heart; 2) vessels; 3) the lungs; 4) The central nervous system; 5) emergency operations in the abdominal cavity. 11. In teaching hospitals conduct: 1) The treatment of patients; 2) applied research; 3) basic research; 4) training of students; 5) The training of doctors. 12. In the centers of high tech surgical care performed: 1) All types of operations; 2) complex operations; 3) operations that require expensive equipment; 4) diagnosis with the help of expensive equipment; 5) preparation of specialists. The correct answers: 1). All. 2). 1 and 2. 3. 3). All. 4). All. 5). All. 6.) All. 7). All 8). 1, 2, 4, 5. 9). 2, 3, 4, 5. 10). 1, 2, 3, 4. 11). 1. 2. 4 and 5. 12). 2, 3, 4, 5.

Fundamentals of clinical transplantation. 1. The indication for transplantation of organs and tissues is an irreversible loss of function: 1) of the liver; 2) the kidneys; 3) the heart; 4) of the lungs; 5) bone marrow. 2. Contraindication to organ transplantation is the availability of the recipient: 1) is not amenable to cure infectious diseases; 2) the cancer outside the body, to be replaced; 3) nekorrigiruemyh disorders of the other vital organs and systems; 4) other nekorrigiruemyh malformations that are incompatible with long life; 5) the young age of the patient. 3. The source of donor organs could be: 1) living genetic relatives of the recipient; 2) live non-genetic relatives of the recipient; 3) non-viable donor, after traumatic brain injury; 4) persons suffering from cancer; 5) persons over 50 years. 4. A related transplantation is possible for the transplant: 1) of the heart; 2) the kidney; 3) of the liver; 4) the distal part of the pancreas; 5) small intestine.

5. Selection of donor and recipient is carried out by: 1) The system of antigens of lymphocytes; 2) platelet antigen system; 3) AB0 erythrocyte system; 4) Rh factor; 5) The results of cross-typing. 6. In the waiting list for donor organ is made: 1) diagnosis; 2) blood group; 3) The results of HLA-typing; 4) the level of preexisting antibodies; 5) The anthropometric indicators. 7. Statement of the donor's death carries a team of experts consisting of: 1) a neurologist; 2) resuscitation; 3) The court medical expert; 4) transplant; 5) The employee donations service. 8. In the first hours after cardiac arrest in the donor suitable for transplantation: 1) the heart; 2) the kidney; 3) the liver; 4) the lungs; 5) The cornea. The correct answers: 1). That's right. 2). 1, 2, 3, 4. 3). 1 and 3. 4). 2, 3, 4, 5. 5). 1, 3, 5. 6.) That's right. 7). 1, 2, 3. 8). 2, 5.

Peritonitis. 1 Specify homeostasis, emerging case of peritonitis: 1) reduction of BCC; 2) increased CBV; 3) paresis of the intestine; 4) increased intestinal motility; 5) hypoproteinemia. 2. In peritonitis in systemic blood flow increases the amount of: 1) cytokines; 2) proteases; 3) potassium; 4) bilirubin; 5) glucose. 3. The main target organs in peritonitis are: 1) the intestines; 2) the lungs; 3) the pancreas; 4) the spleen; 5) The kidney. 4. A consequence of the oppression of intestinal motility in peritonitis are: 1) deposition in the lumen of the intestine of large quantities of fluid; 2) the reduction of toxic products in the gut; 3) elevated levels of toxic products in the gut; 4) reduction of the permeability of the mucous membrane; 5) translocation of bacteria and toxins in the blood and lymph. 5. Manifestations of paresis of the intestine are: 1) bloating; 2) vomiting;

3) strengthening the peristaltic noises; 4) The cramping abdominal pain; 5) arching dull pain in the abdomen. 6. The signs of peritonitis are: 1) pain in the abdomen; 2) increased pain in the abdomen with concussion of the abdominal wall; 3) strengthening the peristaltic noises; 4) the protective power of the abdominal muscles; 5) soft belly. 7. For the diagnosis of peritonitis is determined by: 1) acid-base status of blood; 2) the level of leukocytes in the blood; 3) the level of hemoglobin in the blood; 4) biochemical analysis of blood; 5) urinalysis. 8. In the diagnosis of peritonitis is used: 1) laparoscopy; 2) the gastroscopy; 3) colonoscopy; 4) ultrasound; 5) irrigografiyu. 9. Enter the visual signs of peritonitis: 1) turbid exudate in the abdominal cavity; 2) blood in the abdominal cavity; 3) the imposition of fibrin on the peritoneum; 4) The pale color of the intestine; 5), enlargement of the liver. 10. Preoperative preparation of patients with peritonitis include: 1) hygienic shower; 2) enema; 3) The evacuation of the contents of the stomach;

4) antibiotic prophylaxis; 5) infusion therapy. 11. During surgery for peritonitis: 1) remove the abnormal contents of the abdomen; 2) eliminate the source of peritonitis; 3) The abdominal cavity was washed; 4) drain the abdominal cavity; 5) drain the intestine. 12. Treatment for common forms of peritonitis include: 1) an intensive infusion therapy; 2) respiratory support; 3) antibiotic therapy; 4) recovery of gastrointestinal function; 5) nutritional support. 13. In the treatment of functional bowel disease with peritonitis using: 1) infusion therapy; 2) decompression of the gastrointestinal tract; 3) enterosorption; 4) narcotic analgesics; 5) an epidural. The correct answers: 1). 1 and 3. 5. 2). 1 and 2. 3). 1, 2, 5. 4). 1, 3, 5. 5). 1, 2, 5. 6.) 1, 2, 4. 7). 2. 8). 1, 4. 9). 1 and 3. 10). 3, 4, 5. 11). That's right. 12). That's right. 13). 1, 2, 3, 5. Nutrition of surgical patients.

1 An eating disorder patient: 1) contribute to a slow recovery; 2) increase the risk of complications; 3) increase the risk of death; 4) facilitate the performance of surgery; 5) accelerate wound healing. 2. Clinical manifestations of proteinenergy malnutrition are: 1) protrusion of bone; 2) loss of elasticity and discoloration of the skin; 3) brittleness and loss of hair; 4) swelling; 5) muscle weakness. 3. Indicators reflecting the nutrient status of the patient, are: 1) growth; 2) body w8; 3) body mass index; 4) skinfold thickness; 5) the level of albumin in the blood. 4. The resulting energy is determined by the patient enters the body: 1) fat; 2) carbohydrates; 3) proteins; 4) vitamins; 5) trace elements. 5. Therapeutic nutrition is based on: 1) a mandatory balanced diet; 2) strict adherence to the daily diet; 3) The taste preferences of the patient; 4) the exclusion of certain products contraindicated in this disease; 5) The maximum mechanically, chemically and thermally sparing effect of food.

6. After surgery on the organs of the gastrointestinal tract are allowed: 1) drink 2-3 hours after recovery of consciousness; 2) drinking water 2 days after surgery; 3) eat a day after the operation; 4) to eat after the restoration of motility; 5) restrict the foods that contribute to the development of flatulence. 7. The main advantages of enteral nutrition are: 1) does not require strict sterile conditions; 2) does not cause life-threatening complications; 3) is cheaper; 4) food stimulates the regeneration of the mucous membrane. 5) food stimulates peristalsis. 8. Indications for enteral tube feeding are: 1) violation of chewing and swallowing an injury a person; 2) disturbance of consciousness with brain injury; 3) suture failure of esophagealintestinal anastomosis; 4) the duodenal fistula; 5) colic fistula. 9. Contraindications to enteral feeding are: 1) mechanical intestinal obstruction; 2) paresis of the intestine; 3) the continued gastrointestinal bleeding; 4) diarrhea; 5) vomiting. 10. Enteral tube feeding is carried out

through: 1) noseejunal probe; 2) gastrostomy; 3) eyunostomu; 4) the colostomy; 5) the rectum. 11. Mixtures used for enteral nutrition should be: 1) have a balanced composition; 2) have a low osmolality; 3) have a high osmolality; 4) is easily absorbed; 5) to stimulate intestinal motility. 12. Complications of enteral tube feeding are: 1) regurgitation and aspiration of the mixture introduced; 2) pressure ulcers of the esophagus; 3) bleeding; 4) pneumonia; 5), perforation of the colon. 13. Common side effects of enteral tube feeding are: 1) bloating; 2) increase in body temperature; 3) vomiting; 4) cramps; 5) diarrhea. 14. Indications for parenteral nutrition in surgical patients are: 1) peritonitis; 2) high intestinal fistula; 3) a shortened bowel syndrome; 4) extensive burns; 5) sepsis. 15. Contraindications to parenteral nutrition are: 1) poor appetite in the patient; 2) Violation of bowel function;

3) cardiac decompensation; 4) acute liver failure; 5), acute renal failure. 16. Preparations for parenteral nutrition are: 1) amino acids; 2) plasma; 3) albumin; 4) fat emulsion; 5) vitamins. 17. Carbohydrate preparations for parenteral nutrition are: 1) glucose; 2) fructose; 3) sorbitol; 4) dextrans; 5) ethanol. 18. Contraindications to the use of fat emulsions are: 1) The pathology of the liver; 2) marked atherosclerosis; 3) the early postoperative period; 4) the clotting of blood; 5) decompensated diabetes. 19. Monitoring during parenteral nutrition includes the definition: 1) body w8; 2) the level of urea and glucose; 3) liver samples; 4) protein content in the blood plasma; 5) the osmolarity of blood plasma and urine; 6) the level of calcium, magnesium and phosphate. 20. Complications of parenteral nutrition are: 1) "catheter" sepsis; 2) hyperglycemia; 3) cardiac arrhythmias;

4) renal dysfunction; 5) hepatic dysfunction. The correct answers: 1). 1, 2, 3. 2). That's right. 3). 3, 4, 5. 4). 1, 2, 3. 5). 1, 2, 4, 5. 6.) 2, 4, 5. 7). That's right. 8). 1, 2, 3, 4. 9). That's right. 10). 1, 2, 3. 11). 1, 2, 4. 12). That's right. 13). 1, 3, 4, 5. 14). That's right. 15). 3, 4, 5. 16). 1, 4, 5. 17). 1 2, 3, 5. 18). That's right. 19). That's right. 20). That's right. Plastic Surgery. 1 Plasty with local tissues are used to correct defects: 1) of the skin; 2) the aponeurosis; 3) bone; 4) tendons; 5) mammary glands. 2. If you use a plastic skin defects: 1) Raised stitching the edges of the skin refreshed; 2) laxative cuts at a distance from the edges of the defect; 3) The movable flaps of skin-fat feeding on the vascular pedicle; 4) ekspandernuyu dermotension; 5) musculocutaneous flap.

3. Perforation of the skin flap: 1) improves the cosmetic effect of the operation; 2) affects the cosmetic effect of the operation; 3) can significantly increase the size of the flap; 4) reduce the size of the donor site; 5) provides better engraftment. 4. Stalk-flap to transfer to another part of the body in the form: 1) the abdomen; 2) breast; 3) the person; 4) the neck; 5) limb. 5. Revascularized flaps used for: 1) The closure of large defects of the skin; 2) breast reconstruction; 3) phalloplasty; 4) replacement of bone defects; 5) The replantation of fingers. 6. During the reconstruction of the breast produce: 1) The plastic skin-muscle flap from the anterior abdominal wall; 2) restoration of the nipple; 3) restoration of the areola; 4) ekspandernuyu dermotension; 5) The installation of mammary prosthesis. 7. Implants made of artificial materials used for the replacement: 1) of the joints; 2) tendons; 3) of the lens; 4) vessels; 5) of the heart valves.

8. Implants are made of: 1) metals; 2) ceramics; 3) Teflon; 4) PP; 5) silicone. 9. Contraindications to the installation of polymeric implants are: 1) diabetes; 2) younger age; 3) reduced immunity; 4) receiving anticoagulants; 5) the presence of foci of infection in a patient. 10. For aesthetic surgical interventions include: 1) liposuction; 2) The plastic lids; 3) the implantation of the lens; 4) correction of the form of lips; 5), breast augmentation. 11. Liposuction can remove excess fatty tissue to: 1) hips; 2) the buttocks; 3) the trunk; 4) the person; 5) in the chin area. 12. Complications of aesthetic operations are: 1) hematoma; 2) abscess; 3) PE. 4) damage to the nerve fibers to the loss of sensitivity; 5) the formation of hypertrophic and keloid scars. 13. Contraindications for aesthetic

operations are: 1) the young age of the patient; 2) transferred the cerebral circulation; 3) heart failure; 4) chronic renal failure; 5) decompensated diabetes. The correct answers: 1). That's right. 2). 1, 2, 3, 4. 3). 2, 3, 4, 5. 4). 1, 2, 4, 5. 5). That's right. 6.) That's right. 7). That's right. 8). That's right. 9). 1, 3, 4, 5. 10). 1, 2, 4, 5. 11). 1, 2, 3, 5. 12). That's right. 13). 2. 3, 4, 5

3) the heart; 4) of the esophagus; 5) of the chest wall. 4. The source of bleeding in the chest injury may be: 1) the aorta; 2) The intercostal vessels; 3) internal thoracic artery; 4) The vessels of the lung; 5) wounds of the heart. 5. Chest pain, aggravated by inhalation characteristic: 1) a fracture of ribs; 2) fracture of the sternum; 3) hemothorax; 4) pneumothorax; 5) cardiac tamponade. 6. Coughing up phlegm with blood after the trauma of the chest indicates the damage: 1) of the lungs; 2) the bronchial tubes; 3) of the esophagus; 4) edges; 5) of the heart. 7. Crepitations soft tissue injury chest injury demonstrates: 1) pulmonary 2) the bronchial 3) trachea. 4) edges; 5) of the heart. 8. The signs of pneumothorax are: 1) The deadened sound of light on the affected side; 2) tympanic sound of light on the affected side; 3) weakening of the respiratory sounds of light on the affected side.

Damage to the chest. 1 When damaged chest trauma: 1) edges; 2) the lungs; 3) the heart; 4) the diaphragm; 5) esophagus. 2. If the damage is developing breasts: 1) pneumothorax; 2) hemothorax; 3) subcutaneous emphysema; 4) an injury of the lungs; 5) cardiac tamponade. 3. The cause of pneumothorax are damaged: 1) lung; 2) the bronchus;

4) wheezing on easy on the affected side; 5) coughing up sputum with blood. 9. For cardiac tamponade is characterized by: 1) reduction of blood pressure; 2) increase in blood pressure; 3) swelling of the veins of the neck; 4) The clear warm tones; 5) blank heart tones. 10. Signs of hemothorax are: 1) The deadened sound of light on the affected side; 2) tympanic sound of light on the affected side; 3) weakening of the respiratory sounds of light on the affected side. 4) moist rales over the light on the affected side; 5) coughing up sputum with blood. 11. In the diagnosis of breast lesions using: 1) chest radiography; 2) ultrasound; 3) X-ray computed tomography; 4) bronchoscopy; 5) thoracoscopy. 12. Radiographic signs of hemothorax are: 1) The partial absence of lung markings; 2) increased lung markings; 3) obscuration of lung field; 4) an increase in the shadow of the heart; 5) The displacement of the mediastinum toward hemothorax; 13. Radiographic signs of pneumothorax is:

1) infiltrative shadows in the lung; 2) lack of lung markings at the periphery of the lung fields; 3) increased lung markings; 4) obscuration of lung field; 5) expansion of the shadow of the mediastinum. 14. Radiographic signs of rupture diaphragm is: 1) expansion of the shadow of the mediastinum; 2) displacement of the mediastinum toward the injury; 3) displacement of the mediastinum to the opposite side of the damage; 4) increased lung markings side of the injury; 5) The gas bubble of the stomach above the diaphragm. 15. If the damage is breast ultrasound can identify: 1) rupture of the esophagus; 2) foreign bodies; 3) accumulation of fluid in the pleural cavity; 4) The accumulation of blood in the pericardial cavity; 5) valvular damage. 16. If the damage breast bronchoscopy allows you to: 1) identify hemothorax; 2) identify pneumothorax; 3) identify damage to the bronchial tubes; 4) to remove foreign bodies from the bronchi; 5) to selectively damaged bronchial obturation. 17. Emergency treatment for chest trauma require:

1) air block; 2) The total hemothorax; 3) cardiac tamponade; 4) airway obstruction; 5) fracture of the ribs. 18. Emergency care for valvular pneumothorax begin with: 1) mechanical ventilation; 2) drainage of the pleural cavity; 3) thoracotomy; 4) tracheostomy; 5) blockade of the intercostal nerves. 19. Specify the intercostal space at an average clavicular line, which perform thoracostomy in pneumothorax: 1) first; 2) second; 3) third; 4) the fourth; 5) the fifth. 20. Specify the intercostal space on the middle axillary line, which operates thoracostomy for hemothorax: 1) third; 2) the fifth; 3) The seventh; 4) the ninth; 5) The eleventh. 21. The indications for surgery in the chest injury are: 1) an injury of the heart; 2) fracture of ribs; 3) massive bleeding into the pleural cavity; 4) the allocation of large quantities of air drainages; 5) the gap aperture. 22. The indications for surgical intervention for hemothorax are:

1) a one-time extraction of more than 1,500 ml of blood from the pleural cavity; 2) The Department of Drainage, more than 500 ml of blood within the first hour after the removal of hemothorax; 3) separation of drainage over 200 ml / h of blood in the next few hours; 4) increase in the number removed at the drainage of blood; 5), hemothorax, which occupies more than one third of lung fields that are not amenable to drainage. The correct answers: 1). That's right. 2). That's right. 3). 1, 2, 5. 4). That's right. 5). 1 and 2. 6.) 1 and 2. 7). 1, 2, 3. 8). 2 and 3. 9). 1, 3, 5. 10). 1 and 3. 11). That's right. 12). 1 and 3. 13). 2. 14). 3, 5. 15). 3. 4 and 5. 16). 3. 4. 5. 17). 1 2, 3, 4. 18). 2. 19). 2. 20). 3. 21). 3, 4, 5. 22). That's right. Damage to the stomach. 1 When damaged, the stomach is least likely to break: 1) of the liver; 2) the spleen;

3) kidney; 4) of the intestine; 5) of the stomach. 2. In closed injuries of the abdomen reliable signs of rupture of internal organs are: 1) the tachycardia; 2) abdominal pain; 3) The tension of the muscles anterior abdominal wall; 4) The deadened sound of gentle stomach areas; 5), bruises and abrasions on the anterior abdominal wall; 3. Absolute signs of penetrating wounds to the abdomen are: 1) loss from the wound strands of the greater omentum; 2) reduction of blood pressure; 3) discharge from the wound of blood; 4) The discharge from the wounds of the intestinal contents; 5) abdominal pain. 4. Signs of bleeding into the abdominal cavity are: 1) The tension of the muscles anterior abdominal wall; 2) the disappearance of liver dullness; 3) the deadened sound of gentle stomach areas; 4) splashing; 5) Kulenkampfa symptom. 5. Signs of rupture of the intestine is damaged stomach are: 1) The tension of the muscles anterior abdominal wall; 2) the disappearance of liver dullness; 3) splashing; 4) increased bowel sounds. 5) the weakening of bowel sounds.

6. The appearance of bloat over the liver with a closed abdominal trauma is characteristic of: 1) The rupture of the liver; 2) rupture of the gallbladder; 3) fracture of ribs; 4) the gap intestine; 5) divide the diaphragm. 7. Massive hematuria is characteristic of the gap: 1) kidney; 2) the renal artery; 3) the renal vein; 4) of the bladder; 5) urethra. 8. Signs of damage to parenchymal organs of the abdominal cavity during ultrasound and CT are: 1) the presence of free fluid in the abdominal cavity; 2) an increase in the size of the liver and spleen; 3) an increase in the gall bladder; 4) uneven contours of the body; 5) The violation of homogeneity of the structure of the body. 9. Survey radiography of the abdominal cavity with abdominal trauma performed to diagnose: 1) bowel rupture; 2) rupture of the liver; 3) divide the kidney. 4) abdominal bleeding; 5) the presence of foreign bodies. 10. Contraindications to laparoscopy in trauma are: 1) the unstable condition of the patient; 2) The combined damage to the

abdomen and chest; 3) The combined damage to the stomach and head; 4) the presence of scars on the anterior abdominal wall after laparotomy previously transferred; 5) sharp abdominal distension. 11. With a closed traumatic injury to the abdomen indication of emergency laparotomy are: 1) a massive intra-abdominal bleeding; 2) rupture of the hollow body; 3) retroperitoneal hematoma; 4) intraorganic hematoma; 5) a stable subcapsular hematoma. 12. Specify the conditions that allow to refrain from emergency laparotomy with damage of parenchymatous organs: 1) absence of severe damage to parenchymal organs; 2) the volume of intraperitoneal bleeding no more than 500 ml, with no tendency to an increase; 3) stable hemodynamic parameters; 4) lack of blood clotting disorders; 5) the possibility of a permanent laboratory and instrumental monitoring of the patient and the volume of intraperitoneal bleeding. 13. Specify the purpose of surgery for abdominal trauma: 1) dropped out of treatment; 2) stop bleeding; 3) The evacuation of the contents of the pathology of the abdominal cavity; 4) elimination of injuries; 5) drainage of the abdominal cavity. The correct answers: 1). 5.

2). 3 and 4. 3). 1, 4. 4). 3, 5. 5). 1, 2, 5. 6.) 4. 7). 1, 4, 5. 8). 1, 4, 5. 9). 1, 5. 10). That's right. 11). 1 and 2. 12). That's right. 13). 1, 2, 3, 4. Legal and ethical standards of surgical practice. 1 Student participation in health care is subject to the following conditions: 1) the patient's consent; 2) the consent of the relatives of the patient; 3) The availability of the necessary theoretical training; 4) development of practical skills on models; 5) full-time medical staff monitoring the actions of the students. 2. To establish a good relationship with the patient should: 1) go to the House at a convenient time for patients; 2) to attend the patient during the quiet hours; 3) examine the patient in the presence of relatives; 4) at a meeting with the patient be presented to him; 5) time to collect and examine the patient's medical history. 3. The examination and treatment of the patient's physician must put first the interests of:

1) The health care facility; 2) the patient; 3) The relatives of the patient; 4) an insurance company; 5) their own. 4. The main factor governing the doctor-patient relationship is: 1) The public ethics; 2) deontology; 3) The oath of a doctor; 4) the Hippocratic Oath; 5) legal norms. 5. When applying for medical care a patient has the right to: 1) a respectful and humane treatment by medical personnel; 2) The medical secrecy; 3) pain relief; 4) familiarity with the medical records, which reflect the state of his health; 5) compensation in case of injury to his health in health care. 6. The concept of "medical secret" is information about: 1) The fact of the treatment the patient's medical care; 2) the patient's health status; 3) The results of examination of the patient; 4) diagnosis of disease; 5) information from the privacy of the patient. 7. The transfer of information constituting a medical secrecy is allowed: 1) with the consent of the patient; 2) with the consent of relatives; 3) the threat of the spread of infectious diseases, mass poisonings and injuries;

4) the provision of patient care at the age of 15 years to inform his parents; 5) if there are grounds to suggest that damage to human health caused by illegal actions. 8. Information about the patient's health status includes: 1) diagnosis of disease; 2) information on the survey results; 3) information on possible options for medical intervention; 4) information on the outcome of treatment; 5) The prognosis of the disease. 9. For information about the health of the patient have the right to provide: 1) The attending physician; 2) Postovaya nurse; 3) The head of the department; 4) The senior nurse; 5) The experts taking part in the examination and treatment of the patient. 10. Medical intervention can be done only with the consent: 1) the patient; 2) The relatives of the patient; 3) an insurance company; 4) consultation; 5) The hospital administration. 11. To give informed consent to medical intervention the patient should understand: 1) The essence of the procedure; 2) the reasons for its implementation; 3) the available alternative interventions; 4) The advantages of this procedure; 5) side effects and complications, the likely outcome without treatment.

12. A medical intervention against the will informed about his condition and prognosis of the patient is acceptable: 1) with the consent of the patient's husband or wife; 2) with the consent of the patient's adult children; 3) to specify the head of the department; 4) a panel of doctors; 5) with the consent of the chief physician of the facility. 13. Specify the objective causes of diagnostic errors: 1) The unusual reaction of the patient to the disease process; 2) insufficient equipment of health institutions with modern equipment; 3) the impossibility of carrying out a diagnostic intervention in relation to the severity of patient's general condition; 4) The rejection of the available studies; 5) physician confidence in their actions. 14. The reasons for conflict between doctor and patient in cases of provision of quality health care are: 1) Loss of patient information on the state of his health; 2) medical intervention without informed consent; 3) inattention and rude health personnel; 4) unreasonably optimistic forecast of the results of treatment; 5) correspondence, "exposing" assess the quality of care. The correct answers:

1). 1, 3, 4, 5. 2). 1, 4. 3). 2. 4). 5. 5). That's right. 6.) That's right. 7). 1, 3, 4, 5. 8). That's right. 9). 1, 3, 5. 10). 1 11). That's right. 12). All wrong. 13). 1,2,3. 14). That's right. Wounds. 1 Specify the factors that affect wound healing: 1) the degree of tissue damage; 2) the level of bacterial contamination; 3) the virulence of microorganisms; 4) the state of blood supply to the wound edges; 5) The overall health of the victim. 2. Wound healing is slower in patients: 1) young age; 2) the elderly; 3) diabetes; 4) suffering from alcoholism; 5) suffering from drug addiction. 3. When providing first aid to the injured site: 1) conduct an audit tool wound; 2) is removed from the wound foreign bodies; 3) perform a temporary stop bleeding; 4) washed the wound; 5) impose a protective bandage. 4. The aim of surgical treatment of

infected wounds is: 1) sterilization of wounds; 2) stop bleeding; 3) removal of necrotic tissue; 4) removal of foreign bodies; 5) reduction in the degree of microbial contamination. 5. Mandatory emergency surgical wound to be treated: 1) bite; 2) penetrating stab; 3) nonpenetrating stab; 4) torn; 5) multiple small fragment wounds of the skin. 6. Progression of inflammation in the wound, prevent: 1) removal of necrotic tissue; 2) Removal of foreign bodies; 3) washing of the wound; 4) drainage of the wound; 5) The irrigation of the wound antibiotic. 7. The effectiveness of remediation of infected wounds increased: 1) The treatment of wounds of the laser beam; 2) Vacuum treatment of wounds; 3) Use of green larvae of flies; 4) topical application of antiseptics; 5) hot compress. 8. Drainage of infected wounds stitched: 1) ensure the removal of wound; 2) prevent the progression of infection; 3) provide the optimum moisture content in the wound; 4) provides the desired temperature in the wound; 5) protects the wound from

mechanical damage. 9. In the inflammation phase the main tasks of the wound treatment are: 1) inhibition of infection in the wound; 2) the acceleration of wound cleansing; 3) adequate drainage; 4) protection of granulation tissue from damage; 5) stimulation of repair processes. 10. For the topical treatment of infected wounds in the inflammatory phase of use: 1) drainage of the wound; 2) proteolytic enzymes; 3) alginate dressings; 4) water-soluble antibacterial ointments; 5) The fat-soluble antibacterial ointments. 11. For the topical treatment of wounds in the regeneration phase is used: 1) drainage of the wound; 2) secondary sutures; 3) autodermoplastics; 4) hydrocolloid dressings; 5) proteolytic enzymes. 12. For the topical treatment of wounds in the phase of epithelialization and the reorganization of the scar is used: 1) hydrogel dressings; 2) the sponge dressings; 3) alginate dressings; 4) The transplantation of skin; 5) transplants of cultures allofibroblastov. 13. Specify indications for dressing

changes and wound revision: 1) daily; 2) a day; 3) soaking bandages; 4) increased pain in the wound; 5) increase in body temperature. 14. Indications for bespovyazochnomu treatment of purulent wounds in a controlled abacterial environment are: 1) The vast flat soft tissue wounds; 2) open fractures of the extremities with extensive soft tissue damage; 3) open the stump after amputation; 4) local deep burns III-IV degree; 5) long-term healing wounds and sores. 15. Indications for the use of antibiotics in the treatment of wounds are: 1) All types of infected wounds; 2) the wounds inflicted by human teeth; 3) bite wounds with closed edges; 4) presence of severe systemic inflammatory response; 5) The receipt of the victim within 24 hours after injury; 16. In the treatment of snakebite is used: 1) the imposition of tourniquet on a limb; 2) a cut in bite; 3) sucking the poison; 4) immobilization of the bitten limb; 5) cooling the bite. The correct answers: 1). That's right. 2). 2, 3, 4, 5. 3). 3 and 4. 4). 2, 3, 4, 5.

5). 2, 4. 6.) 1, 2, 3, 4. 7). 1, 2, 3, 4. 8). 1, 2, 3. 9). 1 2 and 3. 10). 1, 2, 3, 4. 11). 2, 3, 4. 12). 1, 4. 5. 13). 3, 4, 5. 14). That's right. 15). 2, 3, 4, 5. 16). 1, 2, 3, 4. Risk assessment and prevention of complications of surgery. 1 The risk of surgery determines: 1) The consent of the patient for surgery; 2) the volume of surgery; 3) the amount of preoperative training; 4) The method of anesthesia; 5) the indications for surgery. 2. The risk of surgery depends on: 1) the severity of underlying disease; 2) the presence of comorbidity; 3) The amount of surgery; 4) The type of anesthesia; 5) the quality of preoperative preparation. 3. Risk of surgery reduces: 1) correction of electrolyte imbalance; 2) elimination of anemia; 3) treatment of opportunistic diseases; 4) an increase in the preoperative period; 5) prevention of complications. 4. Surgery may be complicated by: 1) bleeding; 2) pneumonia; 3) pulmonary embolism;

4) stroke; 5) myocardial infarction. 5. The risk of life-threatening complications is highest in patients: 1) older than 70 years; 2) with unstable angina; 3) with mild hypertension; 4), heart rhythm disturbances; 5) with carotid artery stenosis; 6. The risk of postoperative pulmonary complications is high in patients: 1) with chronic lung disease; 2) with obesity; 3) smokers; 4) for anesthesia lasting more than 3 hours; 5) under local anesthesia. 7. Prevention of postoperative pneumonia include: 1) hand hygiene of medical staff; 2) prevention of aspiration; 3) reorganization of the respiratory tract; 4) the extension of mechanical ventilation; 5) breathing exercises. 8. The risk of regurgitation increased in patients: 1) are in a state of unconsciousness; 2) are in the mind; 3) the introduction narcosis; 4) during the period of cessation of anesthesia; 5) with intestinal obstruction. 9. Vomiting may be the cause: 1) aspiration pneumonia; 2) rupture of the esophagus; 3) wound dehiscence; 4) dehydration;

5) electrolyte imbalance. 10. The risk of developing the syndrome of postoperative nausea and vomiting increased: 1) in women; 2) in individuals prone to motion sickness; 3) the use of drugs for sedation and analgesia; 4) the restriction of movement after surgery; 5) the restriction of water intake after surgery. 11. Premedication: 1) inhibits the excitement of the patient; 2) increases the analgesic effect of anesthesia; 3) reduces salivation; 4) reduces slizeobrazovanie in the airways; 5) reduces postoperative nausea and vomiting. 12. Denominated external fluid and electrolyte loss occur in the presence of: 1) stenosis of the outlet of the stomach; 2) enteric fistula; 3) colonic fistula; 4) biliary fistula; 5), pancreatic fistula. 13. Severe water and electrolyte disturbances occur when: 1) peritonitis; 2) acute intestinal obstruction; 3) renal failure; 4) long-term treatment of diuretics; 5) long-term treatment of antihypertensive drugs. 14. Increased risk of bleeding in patients taking: 1) antihypertensive drugs; 2) non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs; 3) anticoagulants: 4) diuretic; 5) sleeping. 15. Reduce the risk of bleeding: 1) transfusion of fresh frozen plasma; 2) transfusion of red blood cells; 3) vitamin K; 4) use of nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs; 5) selective arterial embolization. 16. Before the operation, anemia eliminate using: 1) transfusion of red blood cells; 2) transfusion of fresh frozen plasma; 3) drug erythropoietin; 4) iron supplementation; 5), folic acid; 6), aminocaproic acid. 17. The risk of postoperative thromboembolic complications is elevated in patients suffering from: 1) thrombophilia; 2) cancer; 3) The postthrombotic syndrome; 4) fractures of the lower extremities; 5) after a lengthy operation. 18. Reduce the risk of thromboembolic complications: 1) prolonged bed rest; 2) anticoagulants; 3) antibiotics; 4) elastic compression; 5) intermittent pneumatic compression: 19. The risk of septic postoperative complications reduced: 1) the reorganization of all available in the patient foci of infection; 2) purgation; 3) reducing the period of preoperative hospital stay; 4) increase the period of preoperative hospital stay; 5) antibiotic prophylaxis. 20. Enter the basic principles of rational antibiotic prophylaxis: 1) the introduction of the antibiotic up to 1 day before surgery; 2) the introduction of antibiotics 1 hour before skin incision; 3) the introduction of antibiotics after incision of the skin; 4) the introduction of antibiotics after surgery; 5) termination of the introduction of antibiotics after surgery; 6) The continuation of the introduction of antibiotics after surgery. 21. Specify indications for antibiotic prophylaxis: 1) operations on the organs of the gastrointestinal tract; 2) surgery in patients with diabetes; 3) the implantation of vascular prostheses; 4) implantation of heart valves; 5) implantation of cardiac pacemakers; 6) prosthetic joints. 22. Before any operation, antibiotic prophylaxis should be carried out in patients: 1) suffering from congenital heart disease; 2) suffering from rheumatism;

3) previously underwent implantation of heart valves; 4) previously underwent vascular prosthesis; 5) previously underwent implantation of the joints. 23. Bowel preparation for surgery include: 1) besshlakovuyu diet; 2) laxatives; 3) cleansing enemas; 4) the lavage of the intestine; 5) selective decontamination of the intestine.

The specific surgical infection. 1. Specify the skin changes characteristic of erysipelas: 1) flushing of the skin area with clear boundaries; 2) flushing of the skin area with indistinct borders; 3) edge of the congestion in the form of teeth or languages; 4) straight edge congestion; 5) the presence of blisters filled with serous fluid. 2. In the treatment of erysipelas is used: 1) Warming wet compresses; 2) erythemic dose UVR on the affected area; 3) opening of bulls; 4) systemic antibiotic therapy; 5) infusion detoxification therapy. 3. For abdominal tuberculosis is characterized by: 1) reduction in body w8; 2) fever; 3) The cramping abdominal pain; 4) diarrhea alternating with constipation; 5) tumor infiltration in the right iliac region. 4. Surgical treatment of abdominal tuberculosis is carried out with the appearance of: 1) tumor infiltration in the right iliac region; 2) acute intestinal obstruction; 3) bleeding; 4) perforations; 5), intestinal fistula. 5. Characteristic features of

actinomycosis are: 1) the presence of very dense sedentary infiltrate in the deeper layers of the skin; 2) distribution of the infiltrate in the deeper underlying tissue; 3) failure of ongoing antibiotic therapy; 4) During the long process; 5) The presence of fistulas. 6. In the treatment of actinomycosis is used: 1) excision of the focus of actinomycosis; 2) opening and drainage of the focus of actinomycosis; 3) antibiotic; 4) aktinolizat; 5) aktinomitsetnuyu polyvalent vaccine. 7. The symptoms of tetanus are: 1) muscle cramps in the affected limb; 2) paralysis of the affected limb; 3) a painful spasm of the masticatory muscles; 4) painful or difficulty swallowing; 5) stiff neck. 8. Treatment of tetanus includes: 1) A surgical treatment of wounds; 2) the mandatory removal of all foreign bodies from the wound; 3) openly keeping the wound without sutures; 4) the introduction of a specific tetanus immunoglobulin; 5) elimination of seizures. The correct answers: 1). 1, 3, 5. 2). 2. 3, 4, 5. 3). That's right. 4). 2, 3, 4, 5.

5). That's right. 6.) That's right. 7). 1, 3, 4, 5. 8). That's right. Thermal destruction. 1. What is the overheating of tissues in which there is their permanent damage: 1) 37 C; 2) 39 C; 3) 41 C; 4) 43 C; 5) 52 C. 2. A superficial burn affects: 1) the epidermis; 2) The top layer of skin; 3) the entire dermis; 4) subcutaneous tissue; 5) fascia. 3. A characteristic feature of deep burns is: 1) Diffuse redness; 2) a local increase in temperature; 3) detachment of the epidermis; 4) severe pain on Needlestick wound surface; 5) The wound surface is insensitive to the prick of a needle. 4. The first emergency care for burns include: 1) Remove the victim from the danger zone; 2) termination of the harmful effects of factors; 3) taking off the burning clothes; 4) removal of deified into the fresh air; 5) rapid cooling of the burnt surface. 5. Topical treatment of superficial

The correct answers: 1). 1 2, 3, 4. 2). That's right. 3). 1 and 2. 3, 5. 4). That's right. 5). 1, 2, 4, 5. 6.) 1, 2, 3, 4 7). 1, 2, 3, 5. 8). 1, 3, 4, 5. 9). That's right. 10). 1, 2, 3. 11). That's right. 12). 1, 2, 4, 5. 13). That's right. 14). 2 and 3. 15). 1, 3, 5. 16). 1, 3, 4, 5. 17). That's right. 18). 2, 4. 5. 19). 1 2, 3, 5. 20). 2, 5. 21). That's right. 22). That's right. 23). That's right.

burns include: 1) The skin around the treatment of burns with antiseptic; 2) The removal from the burn surface fragments of the epidermis; 3) deflation contents of large bubbles; 4) processing of the wound with antiseptic; 5) necrectomy. 6. Local treatment of deep burns include: 1) nekrotomiyu; 2) the surgical removal of the necrosis; 3) chemical necrectomy; 4) The transplantation of free autologous skin grafts; 5) The synthetic wound coverings. 7. In extensive burns primarily operate: 1) back; 2) a person; 3) neck; 4) Brush; 5) of large joints. 8. To restore the skin have deified as the donor site is used: 1) the neck; 2) tummy; 3) the buttocks; 4) hips; 5) leg. 9. Treatment of burn patients include: 1) pain relief; 2) reduction of BCC; 3) elimination of the acute burn toxemia; 4) prevention of septic complications 5) nutrition. 10. For inhalation thermal injury is

characterized by: 1) hoarseness; 2) cough; 3) The sooty open areas of the body; 4) The sooty visible mucous membranes. 5) The presence of soot in the sputum. 11. First aid for frostbite victim include: 1) The delivery of the victim into a warm room; 2) the victim in the dressing dry and warm clothing; 3) giving the victim a warm drink; 4) The warming of the supercooled region of the body from the outside; 5) isolation of the supercooled region of the body from external heat. 12. The criterion for cooling the whole body is a body temperature below 1) 36 C; 2) 35 C; 3) 34 C; 4) 33 C; 5) 32 C. 13. Treatment with the general cooling of the victim include: 1) The delivery of the victim into a warm room; 2) wrapping the victim in a heated blanket; 3) warm drink; 4) intravenous infusion of warmed up to 40-42 C solutions; 5) placement of the victim in a warm bath. The correct answers: 1). 5. 2). 1 and 2. 3). 5. 4). That's right.

5). 1, 2, 3, 4. 6.) That's right. 7). 2, 3, 4, 5. 8). 2, 3, 4, 5. 9). That's right. 10). That's right. 11). 1, 2, 3, 5. 12). 2. 13). That's right. Transfusion therapy. 1 The group of human blood: 1) does not change during life; 2) changes after transfusion of blood components; 3) changes after an illness; 4) changes under the influence of drugs; 5) changes after organ transplantation. 2. Signs of the suitability of blood components for transfusion are: 1) tightness of the package; 2) availability of information on the date of harvesting; 3) availability of information on blood group system AB0 and Rh factor; 4) availability of data on virological examination; 5) the absence of suspended matter and flakes. 3. Specify rules for transfusion of blood components: 1) one component of blood transfused, the level is below the normal values; 2) one component of blood transfusions, lack of which threatens the life of the patient; 3) transfused blood components only for the group, which is available to the recipient; 4) for each transfusion must conduct a

biological sample; 5) The biological sample is carried out only if the recipient's allergies. 4. A sample of individual compatibility of donor and recipient blood transfusion is carried out: 1) red blood cells; 2) plasma; 3) albumin; 4) antibodies; 5) fibrinogen. 5. A sample of individual blood compatibility of donor and recipient is carried out between: 1) The serum donor and the recipient's red blood cells; 2) The serum of the recipient and donor red blood cells; 3) The recipient and donor red blood cells; 4) The sera of the recipient and donor; 5) The whole blood of the recipient and donor red blood cells. 6. Biological sample to be compatible blood donor and the recipient is conducted by: 1) with large volumes of transfusion; 2) regardless of the volume of transfusion environment; 3) at a high rate of transfusion; 4) regardless of the speed of transfusion; 5) prior to transfusion of each new dose. 7. In carrying out biological tests on the compatibility of donor and recipient blood transfusion in the volume of the medium: 1) 1 ml; 2) 5 ml;

3) 10 ml; 4) 20 ml; 5) 50 ml. 8. In carrying out biological tests on the compatibility of donor and recipient blood transfusion control environment provided by: 1), 1; 2) 2 times; 3) 3 times; 4) 4 times; 5) 5 times. 9. In carrying out biological tests on the blood compatibility of donor and recipient controls: 1) The general condition of the patient; 2) heart rate; 3) respiratory rate; 4) blood pressure; 5) The color of the skin. 10. The signs of incompatibility between the blood donor and the recipient during the biological sample are: 1) fever; 2) low back pain; 3) feeling the heat; 4) headache; 5) nausea. 11. Transfusion of blood components under general anesthesia for starting blood transfusion complications are judged by: 1) unmotivated increased bleeding in the surgical wound; 2) reduction in blood pressure; 3) increased blood pressure; 4) increased heart rate; 5) Change the color of urine.

12. The doctor who produces transfusion of blood components prior to transfusion must personally: 1) Please check with the recipient's last name, first name, year of birth and compare them with those on the front page of the history of the disease; 2) to double-check the blood group of donor AB0 system; 3) to compare the blood group and rhesus origin, marked on the container, with the results of the study, previously made to the medical history and had just received; 4) transfusion of red cells to test for compatibility of the individual donor's red blood cells and serum of the recipient; 5) carry out a biological sample. 13. Transfusion of blood components is necessary: 1) pre-transfusion warm environment; 2) transfusion transfusion environment needs to be chilled; 3) The use of disposable devices for intravenous administration, with a filter; 4) pour the transfusion environment completely; 5) The donor's container with a small amount of the remaining medium to keep in the refrigerator for 48 hours. 14. During the transfusion is permissible: 1) direct transfusion of blood directly from the donor to the recipient; 2) transfusion of cadaveric blood; 3) the introduction of blood component container with other drugs; 4) the introduction of blood component container with isotonic sodium chloride solution;

5) hemolyzed blood. 15. After transfusion of control: 1) The patient's condition; 2) The color of the skin; 3) body temperature; 4) the amount of urine; 5) The color of urine. 16. The doctor who conducted transfuziiyu blood components required to register in the patient's medical record: 1) the indications for transfusion; 2) The passport data of the donor label the container; 3) The result of the control checks the recipient's blood group; 4) the result of group membership, verification of red blood cells from the container; 5) The results of individual tests the compatibility of donor red blood cells and serum of the recipient; 6) the result of a biological sample. 17. Specify the indications for transfusion of red blood cells: 1) massive blood loss; 2) hypovolemia; 3) low blood clotting; 4) hypoproteinemia; 5) respiratory failure. 18. Lack of increase in hemoglobin after the transfusion of red blood cells can be observed: 1) with continuous bleeding; 2) immunological incompatibility of blood; 3) prolonged hyperthermia; 4) severe splenomegaly in a patient; 5) eating disorders.

19. The indications for transfusion of fresh frozen plasma is used: 1) disseminated intravascular coagulation; 2) acute massive blood loss; 3) The hemorrhagic syndrome; 4) Lack of BCC; 5) eating disorders. 20. The indications for transfusion of albumin solution is: 1) reduction in plasma albumin below 25 g / l; 2) slowing of blood coagulation; 3) anemia; 4) DIC; 5) The syndrome of "capillary leak". 21. Transfusion of blood components may be complicated by: 1) the transfer of infectious diseases; 2) renal insufficiency; 3) acute DIC; 4) The syndrome of acute lung injury; 5), anaphylactic shock. The correct answers: 1). 1 2). That's right. 3). 2, 3, 4. 4). 1 5). 2. 6.) 2, 4, 5. 7). 3. 8). 3. 9). That's right. 10). That's right. 11). 1, 2, 4, 5. 12). That's right. 13). 1, 3, 5. 14). 4. 15). That's right. 16). That's right.

17). 1 18). 1, 2, 3, 4. 19). 1, 2, 3. 20). 1 21). That's right Pulmonary embolism. 1 Pulmonary thromboembolism occurs when a blood clot in the presence of: 1) the inferior vena cava; 2) the aorta; 3) the femoral vein; 4) the femoral artery; 5) the right atrium. 2. Pulmonary arteries leads to: 1) increased blood pressure in the pulmonary artery; 2) increased blood pressure in the brachial artery; 3) right ventricular overload; 4) overload of the left ventricle; 5) arterial hypoxemia. 3. Specify the symptoms of pulmonary thromboembolism: 1) chest pain; 2) shortness of breath; 3) a sense of fear; 4) cyanosis of the face and upper body; 5) redness of the face and upper body. 4. The differential diagnosis of pulmonary thromboembolism should be carried out with the following diseases: 1) myocardial infarction; 2) pneumothorax; 3) pneumonia; 4) septic shock; 5), perforation of the esophagus; 6) dissecting aortic aneurysm.

5. For the diagnosis of pulmonary thromboembolism is used: 1) determination of D-dimer in the blood; 2) determination of the partial oxygen pressure in the blood; 3) echocardiography; 4) perfusion scans of the lungs; 5) helical computed tomography. 6. In order to prevent pulmonary thromboembolism in patients with acute venous thrombosis using: 1) antibiotics; 2) anticoagulants; 3) implantation of vena cava filters; 4) plication of the inferior vena cava; 5) ligation of the superficial femoral vein. 7. Absolute indications for implantation of vena cava filters are: 1) the presence of any blood clot in a vein; 2) the presence of thrombus in the right atrium; 3) presence of thrombus in the subclavian vein; 4) floating thrombus in the inferior vena cava; 5) recurrent pulmonary embolism, the source of which is not installed. 8. Specify the complications arising from implantation of vena cava filters: 1) thrombosis of the inferior vena cava; 2) migratsieya filter; 3) the development of severe chronic venous insufficiency in both legs; 4) damage to the inferior vena cava with the formation of retroperitoneal hematoma;

5) development of the lumbosacral radicular syndrome. 9. In the treatment of pulmonary thromboembolism is used: 1) anticoagulation therapy; 2) systemic thrombolytic therapy; 3) catheter thrombolysis; 4) direct embolectomy; 5) aspiration catheter embolectomy. The correct answers: 1). 1, 3, 5. 2). 1, 3, 5. 3). 1 2, 3, 4. 4). That's right. 5). That's right. 6.) 2. 3, 4, 5. 7). 4 and 5. 8). That's right. 9). That's right. Care of surgical patients. 1. Care of surgical patients include: 1) assist in meeting the natural needs of the patient; 2) provision of personal care the patient; 3) ensuring that environmental health of its environment; 4) shifting and transportation of the patient; 5) the patient's dressing. 2. Special care for surgical patients consists of: 1) preparation of the operative field; 2) monitoring the state of the wound; 3) The fee for the discharge of the probes; 4) washing of drains; 5) of the infusion.

3. The purpose of patient care is prevention: 1) pressure sores; 2) infectious complications; 3) itching and scratching; 4) diaper rash; 5) diseases of the oral cavity. 4. Mandatory daily hygiene patient include: 1) washing; 2) cleaning of the teeth; 3) processing of the eye; 4) rubbing the body, 5) washing hair. 5. Once a week the patient hygiene is carried out following procedures: 1) cut the patient; 2) washing the head; 3) treatment of nails; 4) a change of clothes; 5) treatment of the nose. 6. Specify the typical localization of pressure ulcers: 1) the sacrum; 2) blades; 3) the heel; 4) the stomach; 5) chest. 7. Specify the means of individual patient care: 1) soap; 2) toothbrush; 3) a towel; 4) a comb; 5) sponge. 8. To rinse the mouth after a meal is used: 1) a weak solution of potassium permanganate;

2) hydrogen peroxide solution; 3) infusion of sage; 4) infusion of chamomile. 5) water. 9. Risk factors for pressure ulcers are: 1) the young age of the patient; 2) prolonged bed rest; 3) diabetes mellitus; 4) lack of care; 5) incontinence. 10. The risk of developing pressure ulcers reduced: 1) frequent change of position of the patient in bed; 2) removal of folds of linen; 3) The hygienic treatment of the skin; 4) Massage the skin; 5) The bed-slightly inflated rubber wheels. 11. In patients with acute abdominal pain until a diagnosis is forbidden: 1) fluid intake; 2) a meal; 3) enema; 4) taking painkillers; 5) The local heat treatments. 12. Before surgery the patient: 1) Do not eat; 2) do not allow fluid intake; 3) clean the intestines; 4) shave the surgical field; 5) empty their bladder. 13. Body temperature is measured: 1) in the armpit; 2) in the rectum; 3) in the oral cavity; 4) in the popliteal fossa; 5) in the cubital fossa.

14. High body temperature may be accompanied by: 1) weakness; 2) headache; 3) dry mouth; 4) lack of appetite; 5) tachycardia; 6) seizures. 15. Indications for use fever-reducing medicine is hyperthermia: 1) to 38 C; 2) over 38 C; 3) accompanied by delusions, 4) accompanied by convulsions; 5) accompanied by cardiovascular disorders. The correct answers: 1). That's right. 2). 1 and 3. 3). That's right. 4). 1, 2, 3, 4. 5). 2, 3, 4. 6.) 1, 2, 3. 7). That's right 8). 1, 3, 4, 5. 9). 2, 3, 4, 5. 10). That's right. 11). That's right. 12). That's right. 13). 1, 2, 3. 14). That's right 15). 2, 3, 4, 5. Surgery. 1. The results of surgery improved: 1) minimally invasive intervention; 2) careful hemostasis; 3) The use of tampons; 4) use of atraumatic suture material; 5) washing the area of surgery.

2. Indications for emergency surgery are: 1) bleeding; 2) perforation of a hollow body; 3) heart disease; 4) peritonitis; 5) paresis of the intestine. 3. Increased operational risk emergency surgery due to: 1) lack of ability to conduct a complete preoperative examination; 2) the lack of possibility of an adequate preoperative preparation; 3) executing operations at night; 4) The forced execution of operations in patients with high operative risk; 5) frequent infection zone of operations. 4. Palliative surgery performed in order to: 1) eliminate the immediate danger to the patient's life; 2) facilitate the patient's condition; 3) cure the patient; 4) a cosmetic purpose; 5) preparation for radical surgery. 5. Microbial contamination of the wound warn 1) The surgeon's hand-washing; 2) sterilization of instruments; 3) treatment of the surgical field with antiseptics; 4) wear a surgical mask; 5) The use of disposable underwear. 6. Treatment of hand surgeon before the operation include: 1) cut nails; 2) washing with soap under running water;

3) drying; 4) processing of an antiseptic; 5) sterilization. 7. Sterile gloves are put on the surgeon: 1) without prior special treatment; 2) after pre-processing special; 3) to the dressing gown; 4) after a dressing gown; 5) to dry hands; 6) to wet hands. 8. Specify the rules for processing the surgical field: 1) was treated with only the place of skin incision; 2) Use of the surgical field should be as broad; 3) deliberately contaminated skin microflora is treated first; 4) knowingly polluted areas of the skin microflora is treated as a last resort; 5) the processing is carried out in the direction from the center to the periphery; 6) processing is carried out in the direction from the periphery to the center. 9. The key requirements for a surgical incision are: 1) must be small; 2) should be broad; 3) should provide a good overview of the surgical field; 4) the least possible damage to anatomical structures; 5) kosmetichnost. 10. To reduce the risk of infection during surgery are used: 1) The restriction of the operative field with sterile linen;

2) isolation of the edges of the wound on the abdomen; 3) restrictions on napkins hollow organ at the opening of its lumen; 4) replace the equipment during operation; 5) change gloves during surgery 11. Plugging is used to: 1) The control of capillary bleeding; 2) bleeding from the main vessel; 3) drainage; 4) The delimitation of the zone of infection; 5) The prevention of anastomotic dehiscence. 12. Drainage is used to: 1) The control of capillary bleeding; 2) the diversion of the liquid contents of the abdomen; 3) aspiration of air from the pleural cavity; 4) washing the wound; 5) The diversion of pus from the abscess cavity. 13. Endoscopic intervention can: 1) remove the concretions of the bile ducts; 2) eliminate the restriction of the bile ducts; 3) to remove foreign bodies from the stomach; 4) to stop gastrointestinal bleeding; 5) remove the polyps of the stomach and intestines. 14. The advantages of videolaparoscopic interventions are: 1) less surgical aggression; 2) the ability to perform with respiratory failure; 3) The low intensity of pain in the

postoperative period; 4) reducing the time of treatment after surgery; 5) expressed a cosmetic effect. 15. Contraindication to laparoscopic operations is: 1) Acute intestinal obstruction; 2) diffuse peritonitis; 3) respiratory failure; 4) prior surgery on the abdominal cavity; 5) large external abdominal hernia. 16. Endovascular surgery, you can: 1) expand the lumen of the narrowed arteries; 2) intravascular stents implanted; 3) to prevent pulmonary embolism; 4) stop the bleeding from the hardvessels; 5) perform thrombectomy of the pulmonary artery. The correct answers: 1). 1, 2, 4, 5. 2). 1, 2, 4. 3). That's right. 4). 1, 2, 5. 5). That's right. 6.) 1, 2, 3, 4. 7). 2, 4, 5. 8). 2, 4, 5. 9). 3, 4, 5. 10). That's right. 11). 1 and 3. 12). 2, 3, 4, 5. 13). That's right. 14). 1, 3, 4, 5. 15). That's right. 16). That's right. Shock.

1. The clinical concept of "shock" is: 1) critical organ dysfunction; 2) a synonym of collapse; 3) a synonym for fainting; 4) strong positive emotions; 5) a strong negative emotions. 2. To the shock is characterized by: 1) a sharp decrease in organ perfusion; 2) increasing organ perfusion; 3) the normal metabolism; 4) tissue hypoxia; 5) dysfunction. 3. The primary causes of hemodynamic instability in shock are: 1) hypovolemia; 2) heart failure; 3) reduction of vascular tone; 4) increase in vascular tone; 5) obstruction of large vessels. 4. Signs of shock are: 1) systolic blood pressure below 80 mm Hg; 2) cold skin; 3) extension of time filling the capillaries; 4) oliguria; 5) changes in mental status. 5. Specify the prompt action in the treatment of shock: 1) airway management and oxygen inhalation; 2) lifting the foot end of the bed; 3) catheterization of peripheral veins and restore the bcc plazmozameschayuschih solutions; 4) Central venous catheter for CVP monitoring and evaluation of response to the introduction of the liquid; 5) introduction of a catheter into the

bladder to monitor urine output. 6. Specify the parameters that need to be controlled in shock: 1) BP; 2) heart rate; 3) central venous pressure; 4) urine output; 5) the frequency of breathing. 7. To determine the cause of shock do: 1) ECG; 2) chest X-rays; 3) determination of the index of shock; 4) determination of blood pressure; 5) determination of hemoglobin. 8. Indications for mechanical ventilation in shock are: 1) the frequency of more than 35 breaths in 1 minute; 2) cyanosis of the skin and mucous membranes, 3) participation in the act of breathing support muscles; 4) altered mental status of the patient; 5) reduction of oxygen tension in arterial blood below 70 mmHg 9. Fluid therapy in shock allows you to: 1) to stabilize the central hemodynamics; 2) improve the microcirculation; 3) improve the delivery of oxygen to organs and tissues; 4) improve the metabolism in cells; 5) to restore normal fluid distribution between water sectors of the body. 10. Application of that increase myocardial contractility and vascular tone, is shown at: 1) true cardiogenic shock;

2) anaphylactic shock; 3) the absence of a positive effect of intensive infusion therapy; 4) low blood pressure; 5) a low CVP. 11. For the acute respiratory distress syndrome is characterized by the following features: 1) severe respiratory distress; 2) increased lung opacity on chest radiograph; 3) diffuse or focal infiltrates on chest radiograph; 4) decrease in lung compliance; 5), hydrothorax. 12. The cause of hypovolemic shock are: 1) massive bleeding; 2) loss of fluid by repeated vomiting; 3) The deposition of fluid in the "third space" for intestinal obstruction; 4) burns over 25% of body surface; 5) intensive infusion therapy. 13. Treatment of hypovolemic shock is aimed at: 1) the termination of plasma and blood loss; 2) rapid recovery of BCC; 3) vasodilation; 4) removal of interstitial fluid deficit; 5) correction of the circulating erythrocytes. 14. The cause of septic shock are: 1) peritonitis; 2) Anaerobic infection of the soft tissues; 3) extensive and deep burns; 4) urinary tract infection; 5) severe destructive pneumonia.

15. The main areas of treatment of patients with septic shock are: 1) the surgical removal of the source of infection; 2) an adequate restoration of BCC; 3) adequate antibiotic therapy; 4) nutritional support and energy providing metabolism; 5) extracorporeal detoxification. 16. The cause of extracardiac obstructive shock is: 1) pulmonary embolism; 2) cardiac tamponade; 3) acute myocardial infarction; 4) air block; 5) the movement of the abdominal cavity into the pleural cavity through a defect in the diaphragm. 17. Extracardiac manifestations of shock are: 1) the excessive shortness of breath; 2) chest pain; 3) marked cyanosis; 4) swelling of the jugular veins; 5) wears jugular vein. 18. The cause of neurogenic shock is: 1) The patient's sudden fright; 2) strong negative emotions; 3) sudden severe pain; 4) spinal cord injury; 5) complications of spinal anesthesia. 19. The cause of anaphylactic shock is an allergic reaction to: 1) antibiotics; 2) local anesthetics; 3) intravenous radiopaque agents; 4) antisera and vaccines; 5), insect stings and shellfish. 20. Symptoms of anaphylactic shock-

precursors are: 1) fever; 2) itching and skin rashes; 3) asthma; 4) frequent urination; 5) vomiting. 21. Treatment of patients with anaphylactic shock include: 1) stopping the receipt of the allergen into the body; 2) the introduction of vasodilator drugs; 3) The immediate intramuscular injection of 0.3-0.5 ml of 0.1% solution of epinephrine; 4) removal of bronchospasm with inhaled beta-agonists; 5) The recovery of bcc infusion crystalloid solutions. The correct answers: 1). 1. 2). 1, 4, 5. 3). 1, 2, 3, 5. 4). That's right. 5). That's right. 6.) That's right. 7). 1, 2, 5. 8). That's right. 9). That's right. 10). 1, 2, 3, 4. 11). 1, 3, 4. 12). 1, 2, 3, 4. 13). 1, 2, 4, 5. 14). That's right. 15). That's right. 16). 1, 2, 4, 5. 17). 1, 2, 3, 4. 18). 3, 4, 5. 19). That's right. 20). 1, 2, 3, 5. 21). 1, 3, 4, 5.