1. Which of the following reproductive organs contains the perimetrium, myometrium, and endometrium?

a. Deciduas b. ovaries
c. uterus

d. vagina

c. uterus

2. Which breast structure is responsible for milk production? a. acini cells c. lactiferous ducts b. areola d. nipple

a. acini cells
Breast profile: A ducts B lobules C dilated section of duct to hold milk D nipple E fat F pectoralis major muscle G chest wall/rib cage

3. When assessing a client, the nurse should be aware that the characteristics of the normal female pelvis include: a. well hallowed sacrum, coccyx movable, spines not prominent, pubic arch wide b. flat sacrum, coccyx movable, spines prominent, pubic arch wide c. deeply hallowed sacrum, coccyx immovable, pubic arch narrow, spines not prominent d. flat sacrum, coccyx immovable, pubic arch narrow

a. well hallowed sacrum, coccyx movable, spines not prominent, pubic arch wide

4. This is tubular musculomembranous structure that extends from the vulva to the uterus, interposed and anteriorly and posteriorly between the urinary bladder and rectum: a. Rectum c. cervix b. Urethra d. vagina

d. vagina

5. Semen is a thick, whitish fluid ejaculated by the man during orgasm. It contains the following: 1. spermatozoa a. 1 & 2 only 2. testosterone b. 2 & 3 only 3. leydig cells c. 1 & 4 only 4. fructose-rich nutrients d. 3 & 4 only
c. 1 & 4 only

6. During the menstrual cycle, ovulation generally occurs at which of the following times: a. 7 days after the last day menstruation b. 14 days after the last day of the menstrual cycle c. 7 days before the end of menstruation d. 14 days before the end of the menstrual cycle

d. 14 days before the end of the menstrual cycle

7. Which pituitary hormone stimulates the ovary to produce estrogen during menstrual cycle?
a. Follicle Stimulating Hormone (FSH) b. Gonadotropin Releasing Hormone (GnRH) c. Human Chorionic Gonadotropin (HCG) d. Luteinizing Hormone (LH)

a. Follicle Stimulating Hormone (FSH)

8. After ovulation has occurred, the ovum is believed to remain viable for: a. to 6 hours c. 24 to 36 hours b. 12 to 18 hours d. 48 to 72 hrs
d. 48 to 72 hrs

9. Abnormally long menstruation is termed:

a. oligomenorrhea b. dysmenorrheal c. Hypermenorrhea d. hypomenorrhea

c. Hypermenorrhea

10. A woman in prenatal clinic tells the nurse that the first day of her last menstrual period was Feb. 14-19, 2005. The nurse uses Naegels rule to calculate the EDC as being: a. November 21, 2006 c. Nov 26, 2005 b. November 21, 2005 d. Dec 26, 2006

b. November 21, 2005

Situation: Vanie is 24 year-old and has missed two of her regular menstrual periods. Her doctor confirms an early, intrauterine pregnancy. This is her first pregnancy. 11. To determine Vanies expected due date, which of the following assessment is most important? a. dates of first menstrual period b. date of last intercourse c. dates of last normal menstrual period d. age of menarche
c. dates of last normal menstrual period

12. During Vanies seventh month, she complains of backache, the nurse teaches her to: a. sleep on a soft mattress b. perform Kegal exercise once a day c. walk barefoot at least once a day d. wear low-heeled shoes

d. wear low-heeled shoes

13. A pregnant woman who dislikes milk may meet her needs for calcium by eating: a. nuts and sardines b. yogurt and cheese c. meat and leafy vegetables d. custard and dried fruits

b. yogurt and cheese

14. Which of the following symptom related to the renal system is most frequently experienced by the pregnant woman during the first trimester? a. burning c. frequency b. incontinence d. dysuria

c. frequency

15. Which of the following represents optimal weight gain during pregnancy? a. 24 to 30 lb c. 10 to 15 lb b. 25 to 40 lb d. 30 to 45 lb

a. 24 to 30 lb

16. During a prenatal visit, the nurse is able to feel fetal movements and auscultate the fetal heart rate with fetoscope, these changes of pregnancy are known as: a. probable changes b. presumptive changes c. positive changes d. expected changes

c. positive changes

17. Of the following, which is NOT a probable sign of pregnancy? a. Goodells sign b. nausea c. skin pigmentation changes d. positive pregnancy test

b. nausea

18. Of the following, which is NOT a presumptive sign of pregnancy? a. excessive fatigue b. amenorrhea c. breast tenderness and changes d. Hegars sign

d. Hegars sign

19. Fetal Heart Rate (FHR) can be auscultated with a fetoscope as early as: a. 20 weeks gestation b. 29 weeks gestation c. 15 weeks gestation d. 30 weeks gestation

a. 20 weeks gestation

20. Lea six months pregnant is seen in antepartal clinic. She states she is having trouble with constipation. To minimize this condition, the nurse should instruct her to: a. increase her fluid intake to three liters/day b. request a prescription for a laxative from her physician c. stop taking iron supplements d. take two tbsp. of mineral oil daily

a. increase her fluid intake to three liters/day

21. Marilou is pregnant for the 3rd time. She has a 2-year-old boy. She also has had spontaneous abortion at 16 weeks gestation. Which of the following is correct regarding gravida and para? a. G3P1 c. G4P1 b. G3P2 d. G2P2

a. G3P1

22. Aling Lenmar is attending the regular prenatal Lamaze classes. Her obstetrical history revealed 3 fullterm births, 2 preterm deliveries and an abortion. She is a. G5P5 c. G8P8 b. G7P5 d. G6P5

b. G7P5

23. Aling Lenmar is in the maternity clinic, after the check-up, she says, The doctor said there was ballotement present. What does this mean? The nurse should explain that ballotment is the: a. examiners palpation of contractions b. fetal movements felt by the mother c. passive movement of the unengaged fetus d. enlargement and softening of the uterus

c. passive movement of the unengaged fetus

24. The nurse examines Aling Lenmars breasts during prenatal check-up. Which of the following findings must be reported to the physician?
a. tenderness b. increased pigmentation of areola and nipple c. prominent superficial veins d. nodularity in the upper left outer quadrant

d. nodularity in the upper left outer quadrant

25. Aling Lenmar asks the nurse, During this pregnancy, when will I gain the most weight? The nurse best response is: a. Normally, weight is gained equally in the last 2 trimester. b. Most weight is gained equally in the last two trimesters. c. Most women gain too much in the first trimester and then try to decrease their gain in the second and third trimester. d. Most weight is gained about 1lb/week during the last two trimesters.
d. Most weight is gained about 1lb/week during the last two trimesters.

26. A pregnant woman with a history of two term births, now healthy adolescents, and a 36-week fetal loss is determined to be:
a. T3-P0-A0-L2 b. T2-P1-A0-L2 c. T2-P0-A1-L2 d. T3-P0-A1-L2

b. T2-P1-A0-L2

Situation: Piday is a gravida 1, in the active phase of stage 1 labor. The fetal position is LOA. 27. When Pidays membrane rupture, the NURSE should expect to see: a. a large amount of bloody fluid b. a moderate amount of clear to straw-colored fluid c. a small amount of greenish fluid d. a small segment of the umbilical cord
b. a moderate amount of clear to straw-colored fluid

28. When Pidays membranes rupture, the nurse first action should be to: a. perform a vaginal examination c. notify the physician b. measure the amount of fluid d. count the fetal heart rate

d. count the fetal heart rate

Situation: Aling Grace delivered a healthy boy, after the delivery, the nurse notices that Aling Grace is chilly and that her fundus has relaxed. She administers the oxytocin that the physician orders. 29. She knows that it has had the expected effect when she: a. hears the baby cry b. sees Aling Grace fall asleep c. feels the uterus become firm d. hears Aling Grace state that she feels warmer now

c. feels the uterus become firm

30. Aling Grace had a midline episiotomy performed at delivery. The primary purpose of the episiotomy is to: a. eliminate the need for cesarean birth b. eliminate the possibility of lacerations c. enlarge the vaginal opening d. allow forceps to be applied

b. eliminate the possibility of lacerations

Situation: Manang Letty is admitted to the hospital in labor. Vaginal examination reveals that she is 8 cm dilated. 31. At this point in her labor, which of the following statements would the nurse expect her to make? a. it feels good to push with each contraction b. I cant decide what to name my baby c. This isnt as bad as I expected d. Take your hand off my stomach when I have a contraction
d. Take your hand off my stomach when I have a contraction.

32. In order to support Manang Letty during this phase of her labor, the nurse should: a. leave her alone most of the time b. offer her a back rub during contractions c. offer her sips of oral fluids d. provide her with warm blankets

b. offer her a back rub during contractions

33. The most effective position for a woman in labor when the nurse notes a prolapsed cord is:
a. Prone b. fowlers c. Trendelenburg d. Lithotomy

c. Trendelenburg

34. To detect postpartum complications to Manang Letty as soon as possible, the nurse should be particularly alert for all of the following, except: a. a foul lochial odor b. discomfort while sitting c. ecchymosis and edema of the perineum d. separation of the episiotomy

b. discomfort while sitting

35. To prevent cracked nipples while she is breastfeeding. Manang Letty should be taught to: a. apply lotion prior to feedings b. nurse at least 20 minutes on each breast the first day c. use plastic bra liners d. wash her nipples with water only

d. wash her nipples with water only

36. Osang, primi, confides to the nurse on duty that she has frequent headaches and has always taken aspirin. Which of the following would be the best response? a. Could you tell me more about these headaches and when you get them? b. Did you take aspirin in the first 4 weeks of your pregnancy? c. We do not recommend using any medication during pregnancy d. Did you know the side-effect of aspirin?
a. Could you tell me more about these b. headaches and when you get them?

37. Osang is visiting the clinic 2 weeks after delivery of her first child. While talking with the nurse, she asks, When can Jojo and I have sex? Which response by the nurse would be the most appropriate? a. Why do you ask? Dont you get enough satisfaction from other forms of sexual expression? b. Are you breast-feeding or bottle-feeding? That will make a difference. c. Its okay now. Im surprised Jojo has been able to wait this long d. Typically, intercourse can be safely resumed 3 weeks after delivery d. Typically, intercourse can be safely resumed 3 weeks after delivery

38. During this same visit to the clinic, Osang asks whether her current vaginal discharge is normal. The nurse should know that at this time the client: a. should have lochia alba b. should have lochia serosa c. should have lochia rubra d. should have lochia sanguineous
a. should have lochia alba

39. Which of the following observations would be the most reliable guide to assess progress of primigravida in labor?
a. contractions that are getting more intense b. breathing that is becoming more rapid c. vaginal discharge that is increasing d. cervix that is progressively dilating

d. cervix that is progressively dilating

40. A client is admitted to the labor room with possible placenta previa. Which of the following is contraindicated during the admission assessment? a. vaginal examination b. x-ray pelvimetry c. type and crossmatch d. perineal prep

a. vaginal examination

41. Throughout the world, the leading cause of maternal death is: a. puerperal infection b. thrombophlebitis c. postpartum hemorrhage d. uterine inversion

c. postpartum hemorrhage

42. Methylergonovine 0.2 mg IM is ordered for a primagravida 3 hours postdelivery who is experiencing postpartum bleeding. Potential side effects oxytoxic drug include which of the following? a. uterine rupture c. severe hypoglycemia b. sudden hypertension d. water intoxication
b. sudden hypertension

43. Early postpartum hemorrhage is defined as the loss of how much blood during the first 24 hours following delivery? a. 100 ml c. 350 ml b. 200 ml d. 500 ml

d. 500 ml

44. During which stage of labor does crowning occur a. first stage b. second stage c. third stage d. fourth stage

b. second stage

45. The first stage of labor ends when the cervix is fully dilated, this is the stage of: a. separation and expulsion of the placenta b. expulsion of the fetus c. cervical effacement and dilatation d. expulsion of the umbilical cord

c. cervical effacement and dilatation

46. The cardinal movements of labor are

a. engagement, descent, flexion, external rotation, extension, internal rotation and expulsion b. engagement, flexion, descent, internal rotation, extension, external rotation and expulsion c. engagement, descent, flexion, internal rotation, extension, external rotation and expulsion d. engagement, internal rotation, flexion, descent, extension, external rotation, and expulsion

c. engagement, descent, flexion, internal rotation, extension, external rotation and expulsion

47. The pregnant patient goes into labor prematurely and is admitted to the unit. Which medication would the nurse prepare to administer? a. Valium to decrease anxiety b. Pitocin to strengthen contractions c. Ritodrine hydrochloride to halt labor d. Demerol to relieve pain
c. Ritodrine hydrochloride to halt labor

48. What are the characteristics signs and symptoms of preeclampsia? a. mental confusion and seizures b. tinnitus and vertigo c. hypotension and hyponatremia d. increased blood pressure, edema, proteinuria

d. increased blood pressure, edema, proteinuria

49. Although the reason is not known, preeclampsia (pregnancy-induced hypertension) occurs most often in women from low socio-economic groups. Their diets are usually low in:
a. Protein b. folic acid c. vitamin C d.complex carbohydrates

a. Protein

50. The nurse might suspect early preeclampsia if the patient complains
a. I am bleeding very heavily b. I got dizzy and had to lie down c. I get very depressed and cry easily d. I cant wear my wedding ring anymore

d. I cant wear my wedding ring anymore